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1. When must visitors to work centers be escorted,
regardless of their security clearance, to prevent inadvertent disclosure of
classified material?
a. Only when convenient.
b. At all times.
c. At the discretion of the NCOIC.
d. Only when material is not protected.
2. What transmission method provides armed guard and receipts?
a. STU III.
b. AUTODIN.
c. DCS.
d. United States Mail.
3. Within an AFSC what is a functional grouping of personnel requiring
basically the same knowledge and skills.
a. Career Field (Family).
b. Career Field Subdivision.
c. Skill level
d. Career Group.
4. The minimum amount of time required to gain job experience before
attending 7-level school is
a. 12 months.
b. 6 months.
c. 18 months.
d. 24 months
5. Planned operations to convey selected information and indicators to
foreign audiences to influence their emotions, motives, objective reasoning are
called what?
a. Counteranalysis
b. Countermeasures
c. Psychological operations.
d. Protective measures.
6. You can determine the amount of current in an electrical device or
circuit by the amount of
a. resistance only.
b. voltage multiplied by the amount of resistance
c. voltage only.
d. voltage divided by the amount of resistance.
7. Who serves as the Air Force executive agency for CIS systems
integration?
a. HQ AFCA.
b. HQ USAF.
c. DISA.
d. HQ ACC.
8. The three types of viruses are
a. mild, benign, and malignant.
b. mild, malignant, and time bomb.
c. mild, difficult, and deadly.
d. benign, malignant, and deadly.
9. The element of communications security (COMSEC) resulting from applying
all available measures designed to protect information systems traffic from
interception and exploitation is
a. cryptosecurity.
b. transmission security.
c. emission security.
d. physical security.
10. Classified "clean-out" days are what type of destruction condition?
a. Normal
b. Emergency
c. Precautionary
d. Preliminary
11. What are the months of responsibility for Air and Space Expeditionary
Forces 9 and 10?
a. Sept through Nov.
b. Dec through Feb.
c. June through Aug.
d. March through May.
12. Who is the Air Force focal point for design and construction of
facilities containing radio frequency interference (RFI) and electromagnetic
interference (EMI) shielding?
a. HQ AFCA.
b. HQ AFCESA/CESE.
c. HQ AFCIC/SYNI.
d. HQ USAF/ILE.
13. If using compressed air, limit air pressure to less than how many
pounds per square inch (psi)?
a. 30
b. 20
c. 50
d. 40
14. What is the base or radix of the hexadecimal numbering system?
a. 4.
b. 16
c. 8.
d. 12
15. Name the four types of SATE training.
a. Awareness, computer security,
systems and network security.
b. Accession, initial/recurring,
awareness, and specialized.
c. Computer security, awareness,
accession and system security.
d. Initial/recurring, awareness,
computer security, and system security.
16. What is the binary equivalent to the decimal number 14210?
a. 100010102
b. 100011102
c. 110010012.
d. 110000112.
17. What are the types of systems vulnerabilities?
a. Technical and procedural.
b. Administrative and personnel.
c. Technical and personnel.
d. Administrative and technical.
18. Which of these categories of classified information's could reasonably
be expected to cause identifiable damage to the national security if it were
disclosed without authorization?
a. Secret.
b. FOUO.
c. Confidential.
d. Top Secret.
19. What type of waiver allows them to continue processing classified
information in order to accomplish mission and complete all the required EMSEC
Countermeasures?
a. Permanent.
b. Temporary.
c. Disproportionate cost.
d. Countermeasure unavailability.
20. The octal numbering system uses how many symbols?
a. Six
b. Four
c. Eight
d. Sixteen
21. When was the first Operations Security (OPSEC) program introduced and
in what region was it initiated?
a. 1967, Great Britain.
b. 1964, Alaska.
c. 1965, Germany.
d. 1966, Southeast Asia.
22. Identify the Air Force security program that results from the proper
application of crypto-security, emission security, physical security, and
transmission security measures
a. OPSEC
b. SATE
c. COMSEC.
d. COMPUSEC
23. Who advises the commander of existing EMSEC vulnerabilities, threats,
and risks?
a. Computer security officers.
b. Security managers.
c. Wing IP offices.
d. Unit Computer security officer.
24. Where do most of the attacks on our systems originate?
a. Outside our span of control.
b. Other countries intelligence
agencies
c. Other US government agencies.
d. Inside of our span of control.
25. What AFMAN, pertains to Classification of the enlisted AFSCs?
a. AFMAN 36-2108.
b. AFMAN 36-2105.
c. AFMAN 36-2107.
d. AFMAN 36-2106.
26. Who has the authority to classify derivative documents?
a. Those who create and approve this
type of material.
b. Unit commanders only.
c. Unit commanders and security
managers.
d. Wing and unit commanders.
27. What form is used to document end of day vault, secure room, or
container checks?
a. SF704.
b. SF703
c. SF702
d. SF705
28. To be successful, missions depend upon
a. leadership from officers.
b. teamwork from all personnel.
c. funds, material, and manning.
d. loyalty from enlisted personnel.
29. Personnel working in controlled areas are trained on their security
responsibilities by the unit
a. Training Manager.
b. SATE Monitor
c. Security Manager.
d. Controlled Area Monitor.
30. Who do you consult regarding storage and disposal of used solvents,
contaminated rags, and degreasing compounds requirements?
a. Unit safety manager.
b. Unit bio-environmental engineer.
c. Installation safety manager.
d. Installation bio-environmental
engineer.
31. Resource protection program reviews are often accomplished by
a. installation controlled area
monitor.
b. unit controlled area monitor.
c. unit security manager.
d. wing security manager.
32. What is the last step in binary to octal conversion?
a. Add the octal number and display
with a radix 6.
b. Write the new binary number with a
radix of 10.
c. Add the binary numbers with a
power of 2.
d. Write the new octal number with a
radix of 8.
33. A disadvantage of open information systems is that they
a. are not interchangeable between
operational applications.
b. are very difficult to replace due
to their specific operational requirements.
c. can be influenced, jammed,
interrupted, or exploited by adversaries and adversarial weapon systems.
d. are too difficult to maintain for
operational purposes.
34. Who do you notify upon finding an improperly marked classified
document?
a. Supervisor
b. First sergeant.
c. Unit security manager.
d. Base security manager.
35. What are methods to eliminate or prevent detection of Operations
Security (OPSEC) indicators called?
a. OPSEC measures.
b. Action controls.
c. Countermeasures
d. Vulnerability measures.
36. When developing a place value chart what is the power of the exponent
at the far right of the charts base or radix line?
a. (°).
b. (¹).
c. (³).
d. (²).
37. What form is not used as a cover sheet for classified material?
a. SF704
b. SF703
c. SF702
d. SF705.
38. What MAJCOM uses mobility commitment lines to control and measure the
tempo of the tanker and airlift force?
a. HQ AFMC.
b. HQ ACC.
c. HQ AMC.
d. HQ AFCA.
39. The best defense against the silent war is
a. good OPSEC practices.
b. STU Ills.
c. good COMSEC practices.
d. approved safes and vaults.
40. Who signs the "approval to operate" letter, officially accrediting CIS
systems for operation?
a. Unit COMPUSEC manager.
b. Base Security manager.
c. Base COMPUSEC manager.
d. Designated approval authority.
41. Which of the following is not a purpose for correctly marking
classified documents?
a. It warns holders of special
access, control, or safeguarding requirements.
b. It provides guidance on
downgrading (if any) and declassification.
c. It gives information on the
source(s) of and reasons for classification.
d. It ensures only people with a need
to know will have access to it.
42. In what type of US Postal Service is mail handled only by official
postal employees and gets some degree of protection?
a. Certified
b. Courier
c. First class.
d. Registered
43. Under the AF Physical Security Program, what priority is assigned to
resources that are the most sensitive, critical, or vulnerable, to include
nuclear weapons, communications-computer systems (C-CS) that is critical to
mission success?
a. Priority B.
b. Priority A
c. Priority C
d. Priority D
44. What Operations Security (OPSEC) function takes full advantage of any
information that comes to hand for tactical or strategic purposes?
a. Command and Control Warfare (C²W).
b. Exploitation
c. Counterintelligence
d. Capability
45. What is the remainder of hexadecimal subtraction problem CA47 - 4D3B?
a. 7DOC16.
b. 4BEl16
c. 65A716
d. 5F9016
46. What is considered the key to Operations Security (OPSEC)?
a. AUTODIN
b. Continuous security awareness.
c. STU III.
d. Safes and vaults.
47. When adding octal numbers, what results in a carry to the next higher
order column?
a. The limit of 6 being exceeded.
b. The limit of 5 being exceeded.
c. The limit of 7 being exceeded.
d. The limit of 8 being exceeded.
48. When adding binary numbers, what is the sum of a column of even
numbers of 1?
a. Equal to the sum of 1 s in the
column.
b. One less than the sum of 1s in the
column.
c. The sum will always be a zero.
d. The sum will always be a one.
49. Which of these categories of classified information could reasonably
be expected to cause serious damage to the national security if it were
disclosed without authorization9
a. Secret
b. FOUO.
c. Confidential
d. Top Secret.
50. What are three key responsibilities of all military members?
a. Obeying the orders of those placed
over you, adhering to military standards, and continually upgrading your
technical expertise.
b. Adhering to military standards,
fostering good customer relations, and continually maintaining and upgrading
your technical competence
c. Adhering to military standards,
and continually upgrading your technical expertise, and working to be selected
for the next higher rank.
d. Obeying the orders of those placed
over you, continually maintaining and upgrading your technical competence, and
working to be selected for the next higher rank.
51. Which of these is not a good communications security (COMSEC)
practice?
a. Talk around classified information
when you are on a nonapproved system.
b. Report all security violations
immediately.
c. Do no operate nonapproved devices
in close proximity to other subscriber sets.
d. Do not try to modify security
safeguard devices.
52. Which program's objective is to develop automatic information security
behavioral patterns?
a. COMSEC
b. SATE
c. TRANSEC.
d. COMPUSEC
53. Who does the Air Force hold responsible and accountable for mission
results?
a. All personnel.
b. Wing commanders.
c. Group commanders.
d. Squadron commanders.
54. How many Air and Space Expeditionary Force teams are developed to
carry out our deployment missions?
a. 8
b. 9.
c. 10
d. 7.
55. When was the present Operations Security (OPSEC) program established?
a. 1972
b. 1966
c. 1970.
d. 1990
56. What is designed to streamline and consolidate responsibilities and to
move to clear lines of command?
a. The objective wing.
b. The objective unit.
c. The one-base, one-boss program.
d. The objective group.
57. When are more responsibilities given to you?
a. As you gain more experience.
b. As you get older.
c. By more time in service.
d. As your skill level increases.
58. What is the overall objective that all security programs contribute
to?
a. Deny information to all
unauthorized.
b. Mission effectiveness.
c. Deny our adversary information.
d. Security checklists.
59. Who is responsible for applying, implementing, and maintaining the
required Countermeasures identified by the EMSEC Countermeasures review?
a. Unit FSAs.
b. All users.
c. Unit CSOs.
d. Unit COMPUSEC managers.
60. What methods create closed information systems to prevent adversaries
from gaining access to information and resources?
a. Counteranalysis.
b. OPSEC vulnerability studies.
c. Countermeasures
d. Protective measures.
61. How long are technical deviations or variances to secure facilities
applicable?
a. Three years.
b. One year
c. Two years
d. Indefinitely
62. Who conducts an EMSEC security inspection once the countermeasure
application and implementation is complete?
a. Wing CSOs.
b. Unit IPOs.
c. Unit CSOs.
d. Wing IPOs.
63. What ASIM vulnerability category is a probing attack in the form of a
Finger probe, FTP breakout, anonymous FTP, Telnet breakout or RFC?
a. Category IV.
b. Category I.
c. Category III.
d. Category II.
64. What is used to control access to computer facilities, terminal areas,
processing equipment, storage media and information?
a. Transmission Security.
b. Computer Security.
c. Passwords.
d. Physical Security.
65. What level of protection is afforded to the combination of a lock that
secures classified material?
a. Top secret.
b. The same as the highest authorized
category stored inside.
c. Secret
d. Lock combinations are not
protected as classified.
66. The program designed to produce an increased awareness of the
interceptibility of our Air Force information processing systems is
a. COMSEC.
b. SATE
c. TRANSEC
d. COMPUSEC
67. Who has the responsibility for management of contracts and service
agreements?
a. 3C0X1s.
b. 3A0X1s
c. 3C3X1s
d. 3C2X1s
68. Which program is designed to promote consistent application of
security principles in the use of Air Force CIS systems?
a. Security Awareness, Training, and
Education (SATE).
b. Physical Security.
c. Operations Security.
d. Computer Security.
69. Who is responsible for managing all real property assigned to an Air
Force base?
a. Base Contracting office.
b. Wing commander.
c. Base Supply squadron.
d. Base Civil Engineering.
70. What is the last step in hexadecimal to decimal conversion?
a. Convert the decimal number to a
series of powers often expressions.
b. Write the new octal number with a
radix of 8.
c. Decimally add the results and
write the new number with a base ten subscript.
d. Convert the hexadecimal number to
a series of powers of eight expressions.
71. How many people usually make up an Air and Space Expeditionary Force?
a. 20,000 to 25,000.
b. 5,000 to 10,000.
c. 15,000 to 20,000.
d. 10,000 to 15,000.
72. How often must entrance lists to the controlled workcenter be reviewed
for updates?
a. 60 days.
b. 45 days.
c. 30 days.
d. 90 days.
73. Immediately, report detected classified system vulnerabilities to
a. NCC.
b. wing IPO.
c. base security manager.
d. MAJCOM NCC.
74. What is the base or radix of the octal numbering system?
a. Eight
b. Six
c. Sixteen
d. Ten
75. What training aid allows you to do training in-house on all the
functions in the information's systems flight?
a. CBAs
b. CDCs.
c. CBTs
d. QTPs
76. What element of communications security (COMSEC) results from taking
all measures available to deny unauthorized persons information of value that
might be derived from interception from cryptological and information processing
equipment?
a. Cryptosecurity
b. Emission security.
c. Physical security.
d. Transmission security.
77. The most dangerous security violation is one that is
a. involving COMSEC.
b. Preventable
c. Undetected
d. involving personnel.
78. What Air Force Security program's main objective is to provide
protection for our operations during the planning, execution, and after-action
phases?
a. COMPUSEC
b. COMSEC
c. INFOSEC
d. OPSEC
79. Who is responsible for providing training to installers, operators,
and maintenance technicians of systems that process classified information?
a. HQ AFCA
b. Owning MAJCOM.
c. Wing IPO.
d. HQ AETC.
80. When may FOUO be transmitted by FAX?
a. Anytime since it is unclassified.
b. When special cover sheets are used
and the recipient is standing by during transmission.
c. Only after specific approval from
your commander.
d. Never because it contains
information of possible value.
81. What type of AFSC does the Air Force Military Personnel Center (AFPC)
use for assignment and training purposes?
a. Primary
b. Administrative.
c. Control
d. Duty
82. When may information be withheld from the American public?
a. Only when directed by the
president
b. Never
c. Only when it is necessary in the
nation's interest.
d. Only when it is critical to an
ongoing covert operation.
83. When converting binary numbers to HEX numbers, what is the binary
number's total number of digits divided by?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 12
84. How is official Air Force information categorized?
a. Classified, unclassified.
b. Official, unofficial.
c. Classified, unclassified, and FOUO.
d. Official, unofficial, and FOUO.
85. Who is authorized knowledge of the combinations of containers
containing classified information?
a. Unit commanders and their staff
only.
b. Unit commander, security manager
and users required to accomplish the mission.
c. Unit commander, section
superintendent and users required to accomplish the mission.
d. Only users required to accomplish
the unit mission.
86. Octal addition is performed by using a
a. sum-and-divide technique.
b. sum-and-carry technique.
c. multiply and sum technique.
d. multiply and carry technique.
87. What are the three elements of the Multidiscipline Counterintelligence
Threat Assessment?
a. OPSEC, HUMINT, SIGINT.
b. HUMINT, SIGINT, IMINT.
c. SIGINT, IMINT, EMSEC.
d. OPSEC, EMSEC, HUMINT.
88. Your resistance to electrical current depends upon
a. external resistance only.
b. the amount of your body weight.
c. external and internal resistance.
d. internal resistance only.
89. What type of AFSC shows your highest skill level?
a. Control
b. Administrative
c. Primary
d. Duty
90. What is the designation of any building, area or structure containing
Air Force resources that are lucrative targets for theft, compromise or
destruction and to which entry must be limited to provide more protection?
a. Guarded area.
b. Closed area.
c. Controlled area.
d. Restricted area.
91. What base function prepares for and supervises mobility exercises and
deployments?
a. Base communications squadron.
b. Base mobility officer.
c. Base deputy commander.
d. Base planning staff.
92. After verifying clearances and personnel information, who endorses the
emergency authorization list prior to sending it to the commander for approval?
a. Flight commander.
b. Section superintendent.
c. Flight SATE manager.
d. Unit security manager.
93. What is the minimum amount of current in any voltage capable of being
lethal?
a. 70 milliamperes (.070 amperes).
b. 60 milliamperes (.060 amperes).
c. 50 milliamperes (.050 amperes).
d. 80 milliamperes (.080 amperes).
94. Where possible, priority resources are grouped together into
a. classified areas.
b. controlled areas.
c. restricted areas.
d. intrusion detection areas.
95. Operations Security (OPSEC) weaknesses tend to fall into what three
broad categories?
a. Communications, administrative, and physical indicators.
b. Operations, communications, and human resource intelligence.
c. Administrative, human resource intelligence, and operations.
d. Operations, administrative, and communications.
96. The value of a digit in the octal numbering system is equal to
a. the digit multiplied by the power
of the PLACE it occupies.
b. four times the power of the PLACE
it occupies.
c. ten times the power of the PLACE
it occupies.
d. six times the power of the PLACE
it occupies.
97. How many steps are there in octal to decimal conversion?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 5
98. Most facility vulnerabilities are identified during
a. the annual resource protection
program review.
b. the initial resource protection
program review.
c. a normal resource protection
program review.
d. the semi-annual resource
protection program review.
99. Name the flight in the Communications Squadron that functions such as
the customer service help desk, job control, telecommunications center and
network control center are contained.
a. Information Systems Flight.
b. Missions Systems Flight.
c. Plans Flight.
d. Support Flight.
100. What is the Numerical Index of Specialized Education/Training
Publications?
a. AFIND 8.
b. AFIND 9.
c. AFIND 11.
d. AFIND 10.
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