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1. Which one does Public Key Infrastructure not support?
(66)
a. Confidentiality.
b. Non-repudiation.
c. Authentication.
d. Software virus protection.
2. What algorithm was designed exclusively for signing/verification and
data integrity?
a. Diffie and Hellman (DH).
b. Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA).
c. Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA-1).
d. Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA).
3. Who issues and manages security certificates and public keys for
message encryption and decryption in Public Key Infrastructure?
a. Domain name authority.
b. Registration authority
c. Directory Service Repository.
d. Certification authority.
4. In all cases where the user generates keys, the user is required to
prove possession of
a. the private key, that corresponds to the
public key in the request.
b. the public key digital signature.
c. the public key, that corresponds to the
private key in the request.
d. both the public and private keys in the
request.
5. The Computer Systems Management, Equipment Custodian inventory listing
can be generated after the
a. ECO verifies the equipment with the CSO.
b. inventory is completed.
c. ECO loads the equipment into IPMS.
d. final copy of the inventory is received
from the ECO.
6. The original message, after to being changed to gibberish called
a. first-text.
b. cipher-text.
c. blocktext.
d. plaintext.
7. Within how many hours of deployment notification are initial
communications support designed to provide basic communications to a bare base
operation and for up to how many days do they remain in place?
a. 48 hours; 30 days.
b. 72 hours; 30 days.
c. 48 hours; 60 days.
d. 72 hours; 60 days.
8. A change to a system that is still being produced is known as
a. an upgrade.
b. modification.
c. refurbishment.
d. an alternative.
9. What will disappear as personnel become adept in the standardized
expeditionary communications and information skill sets needed to support the
Expeditionary Air and Space Force throughout the entire predeployment/deployment
cycle?
a. The different equipment required to
support fixed and tactical deployment cycles.
b. The dividing line between fixed and
tactical communications and information skill sets.
c. Fixed and tactical deployment cycles.
d. Fixed deployment cycles only.
10. What are COMSEC incidents generally classified until receiving
guidance from higher agencies?
a. Confidential.
b. Unclassified.
c. Top Secret.
d. Secret.
11. In public/key cryptography, key establishment can occur by key
a. security verification or key
acknowledgement.
b. transfer or key security
verification.
c. agreement or key security
verification.
d. transfer or key agreement.
12. What is the "Type C" mobility bag and what does it contain?
a. Chemical warfare defense equipment
bag; mask, filter units, over-garments, and atropine.
b. Hot weather bag; desert
environment equipment, salt pills.
c. General purpose bag; helmet,
canteen, mess kit, and wet weather overalls.
d. Cold weather gear bag; mittens,
parka, lined field caps, etc.
13. What is the preferred method for listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form
16?
a. Alphabetically by edition.
b. By shelf arrangement.
c. By drawer arrangement.
d. Alphabetically by short title.
14. What is the most overlooked area of COMSEC material protection
procedures?
a. Reporting of practices dangerous
to security.
b. Administration paperwork.
c. Proper and timely destruction of
used material.
d. Inspections of the COMSEC
responsibility officer accounts.
15. A cryptography hash is used to take
a. a fixed input and change it to an
arbitrary input.
b. an arbitrary input and change it
to a fixed input.
c. a fixed input and change it to an
arbitrary output.
d. an arbitrary input and change it
to an arbitrary output.
16. The term used when referring to specific COMSEC material (other than
equipment) is COMSEC
a. supplies
b. entities
c. aids
d. materials
17. In what technology is security based on the fact that it is
computationally infeasible for anyone other than the key pair creator to derive
the private key from knowledge of the public key?
a. Private-key cryptography.
b. Public-key cryptography.
c. Unclassified-key cryptography.
d. Classified-key cryptography.
18. If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user
because of distance, the COMSEC manager
a. conducts the inventory with the
user by telephone.
b. requests special TDY orders from
CSGP.
c. requests special TDY orders from
MAJCOM.
d. asks the user to verify his or her
holding by letter or message.
19. Who establishes the Air Force computer system management working group
(CSMWG)?
a. HQ USAF/ILM.
b. HQ USAF/SCMOS.
c. HQ SSG/ENEI.
d. HQ AETC/TT.
20. The Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA-1) was designed specifically for use
with what other algorithm?
a. Diffie and Hellman (DH).
b. Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA).
c. EIGamal signature (EIG85).
d. Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA).
21. The Theater Deployable Communications-Integrated Communications Access
Package (TDC-ICAP) is ideal in a sustained deployment because of its
a. modular design and
transportability.
b. scalable features and its
expandability.
c. interoperability with other
equipment.
d. modular design and expandability.
22. To ensure COMSEC responsibility officers are complying with applicable
directives and accounting for the COMSEC material under their control, the
COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least
a. monthly
b. semi-annually.
c. quarterly.
d. annually.
23. Who appoints the COMSEC manager?
a. MAJCOM commander.
b. Air Force Cryptologic Support
Center (AFCSC).
c. National Security Agency (NSA).
d. Wing commander.
24. When a given user has multiple "old" certificates and at least one
"current" certificate, the user has a key
a. security database.
b. update.
c. access database.
d. history.
25. What system automates the functions of an Air Operations Center (AOC)
and Air Support Operations Center (ASOC)?
a. Theater Deployable Communications
System (TDCS).
b. Ground Theater Air Control System
(GTACS).
c. Contingency Theater Automated
Planning System (CTAPS).
d. Tri-Service Tactical
Communications System (TTCS).
26. Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic
material within the US government?
a. Director National Security Agency
(DIRNSA).
b. Commander, AFIC.
c. MAJCOM.
d. Cryptologic Support Group (CPSG).
27. Who is the final approval authority for a person going into two-person
control positions?
a. A doctor at the local military
hospital.
b. The commander of the unit holding
two-person control material.
c. The COMSEC manager of a unit
holding two-person control material.
d. The wing commander of a unit
holding two-person control material.
28. Which of the following is NOT a proper step of planning equipment
utilization?
a. Research equipment specifications
b. Research administrator
preferences.
c. Identify mission requirements:
d. Identify user needs.
29. What type of software is used specifically to write or create other
software?
a. Machine language software.
b. Development software.
c. Creation software.
d. Two tier software.
30. To conduct an inspection, COMSEC managers (CM) use the Air Force Form
a. 4500.
b. 3215.
c. 3718.
d. 4160.
31. AFCOMSEC Forms 16 COMSEC inventories are retained for the current
inventory plus
a. 1 month
b. 6 months
c. 3 months
d. 12 months
32. The individual who is required to use and safeguard COMSEC aids in the
performance of official duties is the COMSEC
a. user.
b. Manager
c. responsibility officer.
d. account manager
33. What is defined as a procedure that has the potential to jeopardize
the security of COMSEC material?
a. Practice dangerous to security.
b. Incident
c. Deviation
d. Insecurity
34. In which phase does the COMSEC responsibility officer check the
material issued against the list on the SF 153?
a. Preparation.
b. Protection
c. Distribution.
d. Administration.
35. Who oversees and manages the operational use and control of COMSEC
material?
a. COMSEC manager.
b. COMSEC responsibility officer (CRO).
c. Controlling authority.
d. Cryptonet member.
36. What must be in place for users to locate the certificates needed to
communicate securely?
a. Registration repository.
b. Certification authority.
c. Certificate repository.
d. Registration management authority.
37. To protect COMSEC information and material, the classification of the
combination to any security container is
a. always classified FOUO.
b. not classified.
c. classified to the highest
classification of material within the container.
d. always classified Confidential.
38. What is the maximum time between Emergency Action Plan exercises at
COMSEC responsibility officers' accounts?
a. 6 months.
b. 1 month.
c. 12 months.
d. 2 months.
39. A Theater Deployable Communications-Integrated Communications Access
Package (TDC-ICAP) metropolitan area network (MAN) normally covers the size of
an area between
a. 10 and 50 square kilometers.
b. 2 and 50 square kilometers
c. 2 and 50 square miles.
d. 10 and 50 square miles.
40. What term suggests movement of material from one place to another by
someone with an active interest in that material?
a. Shipment.
b. Carrier.
c. Transfer.
d. Transport.
41. What is the maximum number of different actions that can be
accomplished on a single SF 153?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1
42. On the SF-153 is the transfer voucher number is placed in block number
a. 1
b. 4
c. 2
d. 3
43. Which class of certification requires the user to personally appear
before a certificate management authority (CMA), or an agent approved by a CMA,
and present an official photo ID, such as a military ID card?
a. 4
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
44. After completing the COMSEC inventory, where does the original copy of
the voucher goes to the
a. Cryptologic Systems Group (CSGP).
b. National Security Agency (NSA).
c. COMSEC manager.
d. MAJCOM.
45. Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could
constitute a
a. cryptographic incident.
b. failure to respond.
c. long delay in pickup.
d. withdrawn from use.
46. When can a lone person transport Top Secret keying material?
a. As long as the material is in a
National Security Agency approved container.
b. There are no restrictions as long
as the person holds a Top Secret clearance.
c. When he or she has the proper
clearance and be enrolled in the Cryptographic Access Program, and the material
is in a National Security Agency approved container.
d. Only after being properly trained
on COMSEC material courier duties.
47. Where are original SF 153 hand-receipts maintained?
a. COMSEC manager's replica of the
CRO's 6-part folder.
b. COMSEC manager's account 6-part
folder.
c. Sent to the MAJCOM's COMSEC
Information Assurance office.
d. COMSEC responsibility officer's
6-part folder.
48. Who directs the Air Force Computer Systems Redistribution Program?
a. HQ USAF/SC.
b. HQ USAF/SCMOS.
c. HQ USAF/SCX.
d. HQ USAF/ILM.
49. Who is the final authority on all aspects of communications and
information systems in the Air Force?
a. HQ USAF/SC.
b. HQ USAF/SCX.
c. HQ USAF/ILM.
d. HQ USAF/SCMOS.
50. Which class of certification requires the user to personally appear
before a Certificate Management Authority (CMA), and present two forms of
identification or credentials?
a. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 4
51. What type of method allows one of the keys in the pair to be revealed
publicly without endangering the other key?
a. Private-key cryptography.
b. Public-key cryptography.
c. Unclassified-key cryptography.
d. Classified-key cryptography.
52. The transformation of gibberish back to the original text in a message
is called
a. decryption
b. encryption
c. cipher lock.
d. text manipulation.
53. Who ensures all legal aspects of the requirement are correctly
addressed and handled?
a. Systems Tele-Communications
Engineering Manager (STEM)-B.
b. Requirements authorizing official.
c. MAJCOM equipment control officers
(MECO).
d. MAJCOM information manager (IM).
54. Which is the most significant consideration when scheduling system
maintenance?
a. Number of commanders affected.
b. Number of disks affected.
c. Number of computers affected.
d. Number of users affected.
55. AF Forms 1109 are destroyed after
a. 30 days.
b. 90 days.
c. 1 year.
d. 5 years
56. You do not get approval to ship or transfer COMSEC material from the
a. Cryptologic Systems Group (CSGP).
b. controlling authority.
c. National Security Agency (NSA).
d. MAJCOM.
57. Which type of COMSEC incident includes the recovery by salvage that
can potentially jeopardize COMSEC material?
a. Physical
b. Personnel.
c. Cryptographic
d. Unauthorized.
58. What agency is responsible for shipping most COMSEC aids to the base
COMSEC accounts?
a. Cryptologic Systems Group (CSGP).
b. HQ AFCA.
c. DIRNSA
d. MAJCOM.
59. A deployment will be initiated/implemented by a warning order under
the direction of the
a. Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff.
b. Secretary of Defense (SECDEF).
c. Chief of Staff, USAF.
d. MAJCOM commander.
60. What do combat-ready communications and information forces provide?
a. Sustaining capabilities to support
peacetime through non-combat operations worldwide.
b. First-in and sustaining
capabilities to support peacetime through combat operations worldwide.
c. First-in capabilities to support
peacetime through combat operations worldwide.
d. First-in and sustaining
capabilities to support peacetime through non-combat operations worldwide.
61. What certifies access to the user Personal Computer Memory Card
International Association (PCMCIA) FORTEZZA card?
a. Authentication services.
b. User workstation password.
c. User network password.
d. Personal Identification Number
(PIN).
62. What block on the Standard Form 153 is marked with "destruction"?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 5
63. Corrective maintenance can be preformed if a server is starting to
fail, if there is a change in requirements, or
a. no users are currently on the
network.
b. there is an equipment upgrade for
network servers/routers.
c. over 30% of on-duty technicians
require upgrade training.
d. the Computer Emergency Response
Team (CERT) issues new testing procedures.
64. After a suspected COMSEC incident, what is one of the commander's
primary responsibilities is to
a. appoint an investigating officer.
b. issue the incident a case number.
c. prepare the initial report of the
incident.
d. prepare the final report of the
incident.
65. When a transfer report for COMSEC materials is received from the
addressee, where is the form filed?
a. There is no requirement to file
the transfer report from the addressee.
b. In folder 1 of the COMSEC account
6-part folder.
c. It is filed with the rest of the
forms from that particular addressee.
d. In the AFCOMSEC Form 14 file
folder.
66. What program is a state-of-the-art ground communications
infrastructure designed to replace existing older communication systems?
a. Theater Deployable Communications
program.
b. Tactical Deployable Communications
program.
c. Joint Service Deployable
Communications program.
d. Tri-Service Tactical
Communications program.
67. Which of the following is not a reason to change a security container
combination?
a. When placed in service.
b. Following a repair.
c. In use for 3 months.
d. When an individual is no longer
authorized access.
68. What algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol?
a. Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA).
b. Diffie and Hellman (DH).
c. Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA).
d. Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA-1).
69. For destruction purposes, what is the most sensitive keying material?
a. Encrypted keying information.
b. Current keying material.
c. Decrypted keying information.
d. Superseded keying material.
70. Within how many days after filing the initial report are interim
reports submitted?
a. 60 days
b. 30 days.
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
71. What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of COMSEC
material?
a. AFCOMSEC Form 14.
b. SF 700.
c. SF153.
d. AFCOMSEC Form 16.
72. What is not part of a requirements justification statement?
a. Cannibalization ability.
b. Cost
c. Security requirements.
d. Quality of life.
73. Who assists organizations in obtaining new communications and
information capabilities through equipment purchases?
a. Equipment custodian (EC).
b. MAJCOM equipment control officer (MECO).
c. Equipment control officer (ECO).
d. Communications and information
systems officer (CSO).
74. A change to a system that is out of production is known as
a. a modification.
b. an alternative.
c. an upgrade.
d. a refurbishment.
75. What is the amount of annual recurring costs for a requirement that
will initiate an economic analysis?
a. $150,000.
b. $50,000.
c. $100,000.
d. $200,000.
76. Which phase is not involved in issuing COMSEC material?
a. Protection.
b. Preparation.
c. Administration
d. Distribution
77. What should each COMSEC responsibility officer do prior to signing the
COMSEC hand receipt?
a. Ensure the required COMSEC
material is listed on the SF 153 and ready for issue.
b. Check the COMSEC manager's
clearance status.
c. Check the users clearance to
ensure they are authorized to utilize the material.
d. Check to see if the effective
dates of material are correct.
78. Which Air Force Instruction covers the Cryptographic Access Program?
a. AFI33-210.
b. AFI33-211.
c. API 33-213.
d. AFI 33-212.
79. In which phase does the COMSEC manager determine which materials the
COMSEC responsibility officers need?
a. Distribution.
b. Protection.
c. Preparation.
d. Administration.
80. What are the major components of the Tri-Service Tactical
Communications System (TRI-TAC)?
a. Voice and data switching, secure
telephone systems, and technical systems control.
b. Voice and data switching,
non-secure telephone systems, and technical systems control.
c. Voice and data switching, secure
and non-secure telephone systems, and technical systems control.
d. Cryptographic data switching,
secure and non-secure telephone systems, and technical systems control.
81. Which item is contained in a unit's designed operational capability
(DOC)?
a. Current training records.
b. Unit manning document.
c. Allocated resources.
d. Security access requirement (SAR)
codes.
82. Look on the back of the AFCOMSEC Form 16 during an inspection of an
account to
a. ensure all account personnel have
initialed the AFCOMSEC Form 16.
b. ensure nothing is on the back.
c. check if the COMSEC responsibility
officer is inspecting the forms for accuracy.
d. ensure only the COMSEC
responsibility officer has written on the back.
83. Who is responsible for preparing the emergency action plan for the
protection, security, or destruction of COMSEC material in case of an emergency?
a. National Security Agency (NSA).
b. COMSEC manager.
c. Cryptologic Systems Group (CSGP).
d. Wing commander.
84. To create a digital signature, the private-key cryptography operation
requires
a. a fixed-size input and computes an
a arbitrary-size output.
b. an arbitrary-size input and
computes a fixed-size output.
c. a fixed-size input and computes a
fixed-size output.
d. an arbitrary-size input and
computes an a arbitrary-size output.
85. Which form can be considered a daily physical security inventory of
your environment?
a. SF700.
b. SF701.
c. SF702
d. AF Form 1109.
86. Who is the approval authority for primary COMSEC responsibility
officer (CRO) grade waivers?
a. Wing commander.
b. Unit commander.
c. COMSEC manager.
d. Wing commanders with approval of
COMSEC managers.
87. Within how many days after you ship COMSEC materials, should you
expect to receive a transfer report from an addressee?
a. 30
b. 60
c. 120
d. 90
88. What security classification is marked on the COMSEC account
semiannual inventory?
a. Top Secret.
b. UNCLASSIFIED.
c. Secret.
d. UNCLASSIFIED For Official Use
Only.
89. In what type of key cryptography are keys so different, that it would
be possible to publicize one without danger of anyone being able to derive or
compute the other?
a. Unrelated key.
b. Symetric cypher.
c. Related key.
d. Asymetric cypher.
90. What rank must primary COMSEC responsibility officers (CRO) hold?
a. SSgt.
b. TSgt.
c. Capt
d. MSgt.
91. Which COMSEC material is accounted for and inventoried continuously by
quantity?
a. ALC-3.
b. ALC-1.
c. ALC-2.
d. ALC-4.
92. All DOD certificate management infrastructures (CMI) have the ability
to generate, sign, and process certificates that contain a
a. X.400 Distinguished Name (DN).
b. X.500 Distinguished Name (DN).
c. X.450 Distinguished Name (DN).
d. X.525 Distinguished Name (DN).
93. Who approves or disapproves hardware maintenance below the line
replaceable unit (LRU) level?
a. HQ AETC/TT.
b. HQ USAF/SCMOS.
c. HQ SSG/ENEI.
d. HQ USAF/ILM.
94. When the COMSEC manager watches a user perform an inventory, the
manager can tell
a. if the user is authorized access.
b. the kind of user training being
conducted.
c. the user's ability to work under
pressure.
d. the unit commander's interest in
the program.
95. The four steps in the requirements' process are
a. identifying CIS requirements,
developing a certified technical solution, allocating resources, and evaluating
the result in mission needs met.
b. identifying CIS requirements,
developing a certified technical solution, implementing the requirement, and
evaluating the result in mission needs met.
c. identifying CIS requirements,
developing a certified technical solution, allocating resources, and
implementing the requirement.
d. allocating resources, developing a
certified technical solution, implementing the requirement, and evaluating the
result in mission needs met.
96. What is used as a segment disposition record of accessed and destroyed
multiple keytape?
a. AFCOMSEC Form 22.
b. AFCOMSEC Form 16.
c. AFCOMSEC Form 30.
d. AFCOMSEC Form 23.
97. Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on
transfer reports?
a. Standard Form 153.
b. AFCOMSEC Form 23.
c. AFCOMSEC Form 14.
d. Standard Form 701.
98. What is used for the generation, management, and distribution of
keying material, including the programming of FORTEZZA cards?
a. Certification authority
workstation (CAW).
b. Certificate repository.
c. Registration management authority.
d. Certification authority.
99. AFI 33-211, COMSEC Users Handbook, directs the COMSEC responsibility
officer to answer write-ups found during an inspection within what time period
until the write-up is cleared?
a. 90 days.
b. 30 days.
c. 60 days.
d. At the discretion of the COMSEC
manager.
100. Who issues a COMSEC incident a case number and determines when to
close the case?
a. Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA).
b. National Security Agency (NSA).
c. COMSEC manager.
d. Wing commander.
101. Who decides a unit's unit type code (UTC) tasking?
a. Unit commander.
b. MAJCOM.
c. Wing commander.
d. HQ USAF/SC.
102. In which folder of the COMSEC account 6-part folder are destruction
certificates filed?
a. 1
b. 6
c. 2
d. 4
103. What system provides the capability to plan, execute and reconstitute
both offensive and defensive operations in continually building phases?
a. The Theater Battle
Management Core Systems (TBMCS).
b. Ground Theater Air
Control System (GTACS).
c. Contingency Theater
Automated Planning System (CTAPS).
d. Theater Deployable
Communications System (TDCS).
104. Which class of certification establishes an identity through an
association with a service, agency, or other component of the DOD?
a. 4
b. 1
c. 3
d. 2
105. Who provides oversight of Air Force supplemental technical training?
a. HQ SSG/ENEI.
b. HQ AETC/TT.
c. HQ USAF/SCMOS.
d. HQ USAF/ILM.
106. Judicious deployment of a single, unifying Public Key Infrastructure
technology can help to
a. optimize system
administrator productivity.
b. reduce the number of
sign-on events required by end-users.
c. increase throughput of
a network.
d. reduce hardware
overhead.
107. Who is ultimately responsible for all Emergency Actions Plans on
base?
a. COMSEC manager.
b. COMSEC responsibility
officer.
c. MAJCOM.
d. Unit commander.
108. Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for
material that has been issued to
a. base COMSEC account
itself.
b. NATO forces.
c. transient aircrews.
d. joint military
operations.
109. Who handles the day-to-day operations of the base (Communications Sq)
account?
a. Users
b. COMSEC accountants.
c. COMSEC manager.
d. COMSEC responsibility
officers.
110. In what folder of the COMSEC account 6-part folder is the account
copy of the Standard Form 153 transfer report filed?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. 4
111. What establishes a person's right to access and need to know
classified information?
a. security clearance.
b. An access list.
c. Unit commander's
approval.
d. A security access
requirement.
112. How often must the security clearances of personnel working in a
COMSEC account be verified?
a. Quarterly.
b. Monthly.
c. Semi-annually.
d. Annually.
113. The handling and accounting of COMSEC material is determined by the
a. amount of material.
b. type of material.
c. accounting legend
code.
d. effective date of the
material.
114. In the Public Key Infrastructure, who verifies user requests for
digital certificates?
a. Directory Service
Repository.
b. Certification
authority.
c. Domain name authority.
d. Registration
authority.
115. What system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify
airborne targets with minimal or no support?
a. Theater Deployable
Communications System.
b. Ground Theater Air
Control System (GTACS).
c. Tri-Service Tactical
Communications System.
d. Joint Service
Deployable Communications System.
116. Who is ultimately responsible for disseminating information affecting
COMSEC material issued is the user holding the material?
a. Unit commander.
b. COMSEC responsibility
officer.
c. COMSEC manager.
d. MAJCOM.
117. The listing of your accounts holdings that helps you verify which
COMSEC responsibility officer (CRO) requires particular aids is the
a. request message.
b. request letter.
c. account database.
d. shipping requisition.
118. Which theater deployable communication (TDC) component provides
easily deployable, long haul communications?
a. Switched Circuit
Network (SCN).
b. Lightweight Multiband
Satellite Terminal (LMST).
c. Datagram Switched
Network (DSN).
d. Integrated
Communications Access Package (ICAP).
119. How many years is it suggested you use for the system life expectancy
if this information is not available from the manufacturer or Air Force Material
Command (AFMC)?
a. 6
b. 4
c. 10
d. 8
120. What is the "Type B" mobility bag and what does it contain?
a. Chemical warfare
defense equipment bags; mask, filter units, over-garments, and atropine.
b. Hot weather bag;
desert environment equipment, salt pills.
c. General purpose bags;
helmet, canteen, mess kit, and wet weather overalls.
d. Cold weather gear bag;
mittens, parka, lined field caps, etc.
121. Whenever COMSEC material needs to be replaced or amended immediately,
who develops the original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic
message?
a. Cryptologic Systems
Group (CSGP).
b. National Security
Agency (NSA).
c. COMSEC manager.
d. MAJCOM.
122. The shared secret information specifying exactly how the
transformation of a message to and from gibberish is to be accomplished is
called a
a. lock
b. key
c. cipher
d. lock and key process.
123. What is the "Type A" mobility bag and what does it contain?
a. Hot weather bag;
desert environment equipment, salt pills.
b. General purpose bag;
helmet, canteen, mess kit, and wet weather overalls.
c. Cold weather gear bag;
mittens, parka, lined field caps, etc.
d. Chemical warfare
defense equipment bag; mask, filter units, over-garments, and atropine.
124. Who should the communications and information systems officer (CSO)
request assistance from if the requirement request is beyond the scope of local
expertise?
a. HQ SSG/ENEI.
b. Systems
Tele-Communications Engineering Manager (STEM)-B.
c. MAJCOM equipment
control officers (MECO).
d. HQ USAF/ILM.
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