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CDC 4A051


Questions 1 - 50 of 149

1. (001) What Standard System is used to register patients in to a database, patient appointment and scheduling, inpatient and outpatient order entry and results reporting, admissions and dispositions, and Medical Service Accounting?


2. (002) What refers to the temporary electrical storage space that holds program instructions and program data?

a. RAM
b. ROM
c. Output
d. Memory

3. (003) What in a database contain the same fields?

a. Column
b. Cell
c. Record
d. Row

4. (004) What is achieved when the system performs its intended function, free from deliberate or unintentional unauthorized handling of the system?

a. System Integrity
b. System Availability
c. System Security
d. System Confidentiality

5. (006) In writing Air Force documents, what explains and clarifies your purpose?

a. Introduction
b. Conclusion
c. Body

6. (008) What is AF Form 1768, Staff Summary Sheet used for?

a. Sort correspondence
b. Route correspondence
c. Control Suspenses
d. Introduce, summarize, coordinate, or obtain approval on correspondence

7. (009) What is an emergency involving military forces caused by natural disasters, terrorists, subversives, or by required military operations?

a. Deployment
b. Contingency
c. Mobility
d. Simulation

8. (010) Who ensures disaster team training programs are developed, conducted, and properly documented?

b. Air Force Surgeon General
c. MAJCOM Surgeon General
d. MTF Commander

9. (011) Substitutions shall not exceed what percentage of any AFSC requirement in a single UTC?

a. 10
b. 20
c. 40
d. 60

10. (013) What program requires cross-functional interaction that integrates procedures and standards for planning; logistical requirements; emergency response actions; exercises and evaluation; training of personnel; detection identification, and warning notification; and enemy attack actions?


11. (014) Who is responsible for the distribution and maintenance of the MCRP and supporting checklists for the medical units?

a. MCC
c. MTF Commander

12. (015) What is a direct-line telephone net designed to save lives and prevent the destruction of property through rapid relay of emergency, disaster, and crash information to specific base agencies?

a. Primary Crash Alarm Circuit
b. DSN
c. Secondary Crash Alarm Circuit

13. (018) What are the two sections of the MEDRED-C?

a. Status Change and Mobility
b. Status Change and Deployment
c. Deployment and CONPLAN
d. Employment and Mobility

14. (021) What portrays an angry, defensive attitude?

a. Hands in pocket
b. Not facing customer
c. Fluid body movements
d. Intense body movements, frown

15. (023) What is a syllable or group of syllables joined to the beginning of a root word to alter the meaning or create a new word?

a. Suffix
b. Prefix
c. Root

16. (025) What means joint?

a. Cardi(o)
b. Arthr(o)
c. Chol(o)
d. Cost(o)

17. (026) What is the abbreviation for both ears?

a. AS
c. AU
d. AE

18. (028) What system gets rid of processed body wastes?

a. Digestive System
b. Urinary System
c. Nervous System
d. Endocrine System

19. (029) What carries instructions that tells each cell how to perform its particular job?

a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Nucleic acids
d. Lipids

20. (033) Where does digestion begin?

a. Intestines
b. Stomach
c. Esophagus
d. Mouth

21. (039) What is the master gland?

a. Parathyroid gland
b. Sex gland
c. Pituitary gland
d. Thyroid gland

22. (201) How does the DoD 6025.18-R implement the requirements of the HIPAA Privacy Rule?

a. Patients Protected Health Information can only be used for treatment, payment and health care operation with written authorization from the patient or other disclosures required by law

b. Each patient/guardian receives a copy of the MHS Notice of Practices. Documentation must be entered on the HIPAA label and placed on the top exterior of the health jacket

c. Patients have the right to access their heath record information. The health record is the property of the US government; the information contained in the record belongs to the patient

d. The patient can request an accounting of every disclosure for the previous 5-year period back to 14 April 2003.This is limited to disclosures that are not part of treatment, payment, health care operation authorized by the patient.

23. (202) Who reviews and approves the requests for release of medical information?

a. Outpatient record NCOIC
b. 4A0 Functional
c. HIPAA Officer
d. MDG Commander

24. (203) When should you sequester the original or certified copy of the medical record?

a. When a co-worker has tried to tamper, alter, or illegally remove a record from the facility
b. When you heard there was a claim filed
c. When the patient has initiated an IG Congressional Inquiry, or Investigation
d. When a request is received from a patient’s lawyer under circumstances indicating a divorce

25. (204) Which of the following are not part of the Medical Record Tracking function?

a. Loan control
b. Generate the reports necessary to manage department activates
c. Generated electronic messages to notify tracking system users of information concerning specific patient records
d. Freeze patient appointments

26. (210) All the following incomplete forms can be filed in the medical records except:

a. Laboratory display sheets
b. AF Form 1480 Summary of Care
c. AF Form 966 Registry Record
d. AF Form 745 Sensitive Duties Program Identifier

27. (211) Patients may not hand carry their medical records

a. When they have sensitive information in their records
b. When the record is not available
c. When there is a potential claim
d. All the above

28. (216) To ensure records meet the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Care Organization (JCACO) standards they must meet all criteria below except:

a. Complete
b. Accurate
c. Abbreviated
d. Clinical Pertinence

29. (218) Who grants the authority to set up or close down an inpatient record library

a. Air Force Medical Support Agency
c. Medical Commander
d. Base Commander

30. (219) Children are required to have an ID card at what age?

a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13

31. (220) Patients that qualify under the Secretary of the Air Force Designee Program may not be designated by the:

a. Secretary of the Army
b. Secretary of Health and Human Services
c. Secretary of the AF Administrative Assistant
d. Secretary of the Marines

32. (220) What type of Tricare benefit does the Secretary Designee program not entitle a beneficiary to for the Civilian Medical Care?

a. Tricare Prime
b. Tricare Standard
c. Tricare Plus
d. Tricare Over Seas

33. (221) Who is designated to inform the sponsor when a Facility Determination Inquire (FDI) is disapproved?

a. Gaining FMRC coordinator
b. Losing FMCR coordinator
c. Medical Review Officer
d. Special Needs Coordinator

34. (222) Under the Personnel Reliability Program the nature of the duties can be classified as critical or controlled; which of the following does not fall into on of those 2 categories?

a. An officer position with direct responsibility for conduction the launch of nuclear weapons
b. Employment of a nuclear weapon-loaded delivery vehicle
c. Requires Security Police personnel to directly secure nuclear weapons or critical weapons
d. Requires entry into a close-in security area. A no-lone zone is a n area where a lone individual may not have access

35. (223) When are new comers to the AF evaluated for PRP duties?

a. When they arrive at their initial base and are assigned a certified position number
b. Once the MPF prepares an AF Form 286
c. After going through Basic Training and have their medical records reviewed
d. During basic military training and in formal training schools

36. (223) As a record technician when you are notified that someone was permanently removed from Presidential Support duties what action do you take?

a. No action is required
b. Remove AF Form 745 only
c. Erase the program identification from the front of the record
d. Both B and C

Match (224)

37. ______Intemperate use of alcohol A. Drug Abuse
38. ______Psychological dependence of alcohol B. Drugs
39. ______Psychological dependence on drugs C. Habit forming drugs
40. ______Intemperate us of drugs D. Alcoholism
  E. Alcohol Abuse

41. (224) When is a person, under going a evaluation for an LOD for mental responsibility, not held liable for their conduct; when they have:

a. Tested positive for taking hallucinogens
b. Mental disease of defect
c. Acted mentally irresponsible contrary to evidence
d. Abnormalities manifested only by repeated antisocial behaviors

42. (224) T/F When a LOD is performed on a military member being treated for one medical observation and consequently needed to be treated for a secondary condition causing the member to be unable to perform military duty for more than 24-hours. Then condition may be a disease or injury etc


43. (224) How many different types of LOD’s are there?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

44. (224) A member’s commander may issue an interim LOD determination if a LOD determination can not be finalized within ____ days of notification and it is possible that the member may be entitled to incapacitation benefits

a. 10
b. 12
c. 15
d. 7

45. (224) Who must concur or non-concur with the recommendation of the immediate commander after reviewing the AF Form 348?

a. Medical officer
c. SJA
d. MTF Commander

46. (226) Which members are non eligible for special consideration medical boards?

a. USAF academy cadets
b. Absent without Leave
c. Dual-action cases
d. Members who refuse professional medical care

47. (227) What Act ended the imminent death processing of medical boards?

a. Privacy Act
b. Uniform Services Health Benefits Program
c. Section 645 of the National Defense Authorization Act
d. TSP

48. (231) When a referral is entered on a patient, and the MTF has the capability/availabilityhow long does the MTF have to respond?

a. 28 days
b. 1 hour
c. 24 hours
d. 7 days

49. (231) Under the New guidance policy where is the RMC aligned

a. Medical Operations Squadron
b. Triwest Service Center
c. Patient Administration
d. MTF Commander

50. (232) For which patient would an Air Force commander at the nearest medical treatment facility (MTF) accept administrative responsibility?

a. Active duty Staff Sergeant admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status.
b. Temporary Duty Retirement Listing (TDRL) patient admitted to a civilian facility.
c. A retired Master Sergeant when referred to a civilian facility in the local area.
d. A civilian emergency care patient admitted to the Air Force MTF.

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