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51. (233) What is entered in block 8 (Type Case) of AF Form 560 for a patient who is pregnant?

a. NRP.
b. DIS.
c. INJ.
d. BC.
 

52. (234) A Composite Health Care System (CHCS) admission notification letter is generated each time

a. A patient with private insurance is admitted to the military treatment facility (MTF).
b. An active duty patient is admitted to the MTF.
c. An SI/VSI or III patient admitted to the MTF.
d. An O-6 or above is admitted to the MTF.
 

53. (234) The admissions and dispositions report is a daily report of

a. admissions, dispositions, change of status, newborns, and interward transfers.
b. All transactions taking place in the A & D office.
c. admissions, dispositions, and newborns only
d. admissions and dispositions only
 

54. (235) Which of the following is not included in the admission package that accompanies a patient to the inpatient unit?

a. AF Form 560, Authorization and Treatment Statement.
b. AF Form 577, Patient Clearance Record.
c. The outpatient record.
d. Patient suspense file
 

55. (236) When must notification to HQ AF/SGXO be accomplished for active duty flag officers admitted to a military treatment facility (MTF)?

a. Immediately, following admission.
b. When requested by the flag officer
c. By 0600 hours eastern standard time following admission.
d. When expected hospital stay is more than seven days.
 

56. (237) The authority and responsibility for accepting patient valuables for storage and safekeeping rests with the

a. Director, Resource Management Office
b. Medical Group commander
c. A & D Technician
d. Charge nurse.
 

57. (237) Which of the following individuals would not be eligible to perform an inventory of patient valuables?

a. Staff Sergeant Jones, NCOIC, Outpatient Records
b. Captain Smith, Directory, Medical Logistics
c. Senior Airman Hill, Pharmacy Technician
d. Mrs. Lee (GS-6), DBMS’s Secretary
 

58. (239) A patient is given an incapacitating illness or injury casualty status when the illness or injury

a. results in a loss of more than 3 duty days
b. involves a communicable disease
c. involves serious disfigurement
d. occurs after admission
 

59. (240) Where are the personal effects of a deceased civilian who died in a military treatment facility (MTF) sent?

a. Executor
b. Base Chaplain
c. Mortuary affairs
d. Summary court officer
 

60. (241) The activities of the unit inpatient records technician (UIRT) generally fall under the direct supervision of

a. the NCOIC of each inpatient unit
b. inpatient records personnel
c. the attending physician
d. nursing services
 

61. (241) Who is responsible for all health record entries regarding the diagnosis or treatment of patients?

a. Charge nurse of each inpatient unit
b. The records review committee
c. Inpatient records technician
d. Health care providers
 

62. (241) Who cares for and protects the inpatient record while it is maintained on the inpatient unit?

a. The unit inpatient records technician (UIRT)
b. Medical records review committee
c. Inpatient records personnel
d. The physician
 

63. (242) If convalescent leave is directed, the inpatient record is__________.

a. Maintained on the ward until the patient returns to the ward or is discharged.
b. Forwarded to the clinic for reference during follow-up outpatient visits
c. Forwarded to the disposition office and filed in the suspense file
d. Forwarded to the inpatient records section for coding and filing
 

64. (243) What will dictate the clearance process for patients being discharged from your military treatment facility (MTF)?

a. Air Force Policy
b. Local Policy
c. DOD Policy
d. MPF Policy
 

65. (244) The Army is responsible for forward aeromedical evacuation (AE) using aircraft commonly referred to as

a. dustoffs
b. scoop ups
c. nightingales
d. rotary rebels
 

66. (245) What usually accommodates from 50 to 250 patients and receives, shelters, processes and provides care to patients who enter in or leave the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system?

a. Aeromedical Staging Facility (ASF)
b. Expeditionary Medical Services (EMS)
c. Mobile Aeromedical Staging Facility (MASF)
d. Patient movement Requirements Center (PMRC)
 

67. (245) What is generally strategically positioned at or near a flightline, and used to provide quick access to enplaning/deplaning patients involved with aeromedical evacuation (AE)?

a. Aeromedical Staging Facility (ASF)
b. Expeditionary medical services (EMS)
c. Mobile Aeromedical Staging Facility (MASF)
d. Patient Movement Requirements Center (PMRC)
 

68. (245) What is the largest turbo prop driven cargo aircraft in the Air Force inventory?

a. C-17 Globemaster III
b. C-9 Nightingale
c. C-130 Hurcules
d. C-5 Galaxy
 

69. (245) What aircraft is used as the back up for the C-9 Nightingale during peace time aeromedical evacuation (AE)?

a. C-17 Globemaster III
b. C-9 Nightingale
c. C-130 Hurcules
d. C-5 Galaxy
 

70. (245) What aircraft assists in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) process by providing forward AE?

a. C-130 Hurcules
b. C-9 Nightingale
c. C-17 Globemaster III
d. UH 60 Q Medevac Black Hawk
 

71. (246) A patient requiring the use of restraining apparatus, sedation, and close supervision should be classified as a

a. psychiatric litter patient of intermediate severity
b. psychiatric walking patient of moderate severity
c. litter patient other than psychiatric
d. severe psychiatric litter patient
 

72. (246) Patients who require emergency aeromedical movement to save life, limb, or to prevent serious complications are categorized as

a. priority
b. special
c. routine
d. urgent
 

73. (247) Which aeromedical evacuation squadron does not have geographical responsibilities

a. 9 AES
b. 1 AES
c. 57 AES
d. 43 AES
 

74. (247) What does the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) code written to the left of the red cross on the DD Form 600, Patient’s Baggage Tag Represent?

a. The facility where an aeromedical evacuation (AE) patient will remain overnight (RON) awaiting AE movement to the final destination.
b. The civilian AE transport center where the patient will be transported
c. The patient’s final military treatment facility (MTF) destination
d. The patient’s originating MTF
 

75. (401) Epidemiology is the study of nature, control, determinants of frequency of disease, disability, and death in human population.

True False
 

76. (401) Epidemiology focuses on the health concerns of our population the role of the population health is to manage the activities and initiatives the MTF deems necessary to care for our customers properly.

True False
 

77. (401) The skills and duties of a 4A, Health Services Manager (HSM) are contained in what?

a. CFETP
b. CHCS
c. PIMR
d. HEDIS
 

78. (402) What philosophy does doing today’s work today embody?

a. open access
b. quick access
c. easy access
d. fast access
 

79. (402) Per the SG policy, MTF appointments are scheduled using what CHCS module?

a. PAS
b. MCP
c. MRM
d. PSR
 

80. (402) What is a pattern of time slots specific to a provider but not linked to any particular date?

a. profile
b. template
c. schedule
d. schedule and template
 

81. (403) What does the term active duty not include?

a. Reservists serving on AD
b. Reservists on full-time training duty
c. full time NG duty
d. members serving full time in active military service
 

82. (403) Which of the following make up the uniformed services of the US?

a. Army, Navy, AF, MC, CG, NOAA, PHS
b. Army, Navy, AF, MC, AFR, AGR
c. Navy, AF, MC, Army, ANG
d. AF, MC, Navy, Army, NOAA, ADT
 

83. (403) How many access priority groups are there for care where TRICARE is implemented?

a. 4
b. 6
c. 5
d. 3
 

84. (405) What are three services that should be provided by the appointment system?

a. Referral, Follow-up and Specialty
b. Initial, Follow-up and Sick Call
c. Referral, Initial, and Follow-up
d. Referral, Initial and Walk-In
 

85. (405) What does the CHCS end-of-day processing provide?

a. vital statistics and personnel data
b. workload
c. problem avoidance
d. all of the above
 

86. (406) An individuals PHA can be scheduled and completed when?

a. 6 months before and 3 months after the due date
b. as early as 3 months before and as late as 6 months after
c. 3 months before and 3 months after the due date
d. none of the above
 

87. (406) Who provides overall guidance and policy for successful implementation of the PHA/IMR program Air Force wide?

a. MDG CC
b. Major Command SG
c. Wing CC
d. AF/SG
 

88. (408) What form is used by all pediatric and adolescent TRICARE Prime beneficiaries for preventive care?

a. AF Form 3922, Adult Preventive Care
b. DD Form 2766, Adult Preventive Chronic Care Flowsheet
c. AF Form 3923, Child Preventive Care Flowsheet
d. SF Form 600, Medical Record Report of Medical History
 

89. (409) The AFMS has adopted several HEDIS measures, which are monitored monthly to measure the quality of care delivered to beneficiaries enrolled in AF MTFs. Name one of the two.

a. Knowledge Exchange
b. AFCITA
c. PGUI
d. P2R2
 

90. (410) Diagnosis and procedures from each inpatient case are coded using what?

a. ADMs
b. DRGs
c. ICD-9-CM
d. HHS
 

91 (410) The ICD-9 is made up of how many sections?

a. 9
b. 2
c. 4
d. 7
 

92. (410) What are some of the elements used in the ICD-9?

a. Main Point
b. “With” references
c. Rules
d. Lines
 

93. (411) There are how many specific reasons why so much emphasis is placed on reporting and collecting ambulatory patient information.

a. 2
b. 3
c. 7
d. 5
 

94. (411) The three main reasons for PCO development are to:

a. Provide better care and improve access to our customers/beneficiaries
b. Streamline medical care
c. Reduce costs by using our scarce resources more effectively
d. all of the above
 

95. (411) What system is used throughout DoD to standardize and streamline ambulatory data collection?

a. CHCS
b. SADR
c. KG-ADM
d. ADM
 

96. (412) Biometrics data are created in how many source data collection systems, and are collected in how many primary data records?

a. 1 and 2
b. 4 and 5
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
 

97. (412) Which of the functions listed below are critically important to the Military Health System?

a. clinical
b. financial and operational
c. quality assurance
d. all of the above
 

98. (413) Which of the following organizations are nationally recognized coding organizations?

a. American Health Information Management Association
b. American Heart Association
c. American Academy of Professional Coders
d. Both a and c
 

99. (413) Who is responsible for ensuring all personnel under their command have appropriate training and preparation for their functions?

a. MDG CC
b. Wing CC
c. Majcom SG
d. AF SG
 

100. (601) Why did the DOD introduce the TRICARE PROGRAM?

a. Retirees require less medical care than active duty
b. As MTFs closed, health care became easier to obtain
c. Today, most soldiers live on base
d. In response to the challenge of maintaining readiness

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