HEALTH SERVICES MANAGEMENT (HSM) CRAFTSMAN
Volume 1, Beneficiary Services
1. (001) Who is responsible for establishing an individual’s
eligibility for care?
a. Outpatient records clerk.
b. Military Treatment Facility (MTF) commander.
c. Local Military Personnel Flight (MPF).
d. Medical Support Squadron commander.
2. (001) What beneficiary category doesn’t require an
identification (ID) card, but must be enrolled in DEERS to receive medical care?
a. Retired O7s and above.
b. Children under 10 years of age.
c. Dependent parents.
d. Civilian employees.
3. (001) The two best ways to verify patients’ eligibility for
treatment at a MTF are to check for a valid ID card and to
a. identify them in DEERS.
b. review a copy of their orders.
c. contact the MPF.
d. interview their sponsor.
4. (001) When can a MTF provide medical care before eligibility
has been determined?
a. when the patient is on active duty.
b. when patient-flow is slow.
c. in an emergency.
d. after normal duty hours.
5. (002) Who performs risk assessments when eligibility is in question?
a. Patient Administration flight commander.
b. Competent medical authority.
c. MTF commander.
d. Section NCOIC.
6. (002) After checking a patient’s ID card and eligibility
status in DEERS, you would deny routine care if the
a. 4-year cutoff date has passed.
b. sponsor is assigned to another base.
c. verification process resulted in questionable eligibility.
d. patient has exceeded his or her allowance for “routine care.”
7. (002) What is used to verify eligibility and benefits for a
Secretary of Air Force designee?
a. Designee letter.
b. Orange ID card.
c. Letter from the MPF.
d. DD Form 1172, Application for Uniformed Services Identification and
8. (002) Secretarial designees from all uniformed services
except ________ may receive treatment in Air Force MTFs.
a. U.S. Navy
b. U.S. Coast Guard
c. U.S. Army
d. U.S. Public Health Service
9. (003) Which of the following is not an approved criterion for
Air Force secretarial designee status?
a. Best interests of the Air Force.
b. Involuntary separation.
c. Preadoptive wards.
d. Remarried former spouse.
10. (003) Under the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) Designee
Program, former spouses are eligible for medical care in a MTF for
a. 24 months.
b. 6 months.
c. 12 months.
d. as long as needed.
11. (004) What type of care is authorized for the newborns of
former Air Force females under the SAF designee program?
a. Routine care until age 1.
b. No care is authorized.
c. Postpartum well-baby check and related immunizations.
d. Postpartum only.
12. (004) Who has the authority to approve requests for
preadoptive wards under the SAF Designee Program?
a. Family advocacy office.
b. Base staff judge advocate.
c. Patient administration flight commander.
d. MTF commander.
13. (005) A Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) position is
considered critical if its duties involve which of the following situations
a. performed near nuclear weapons or certified critical
b. would permit the launch of a nuclear weapon.
c. an officer with direct responsibility for conducting the launch of a
d. all of the above.
14. (005) A 4A071 position who provides duties in direct support to the
President of the United States on a permanent, full-time basis are called
a. category one positions.
b. category two positions.
c. critical positions.
d. controlled positions.
15. (005) Personnel in category two positions include the
a. White House transportation personnel.
b. personnel assigned to the honor guard.
c. military band personnel who perform at presidential functions.
d. contractor employees who require unescorted access to presidential
16. (006) Who identifies positions that require PRP
a. MTF commander.
b. NCOIC, Patient Administration.
c. Unit commander.
d. MPF commander.
17. (006) Suspension from PRP duties normally does not exceed
how many days?
18. (006) Which of the following must the sensitive duties
program manager do once they are notified by security forces that a person is
selected for presidential support duties?
a. contact the MTF commander.
b. conduct a personal interview with the member.
c. place an AF Form 745 in the member’s health record.
d. place the member’s record in the NCOICs office.
19. (007) There are how many subsystems in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?
20. (007) The NCOIC, Outpatient Records would go into which
option to track where a record is in the facility?
21. (008) In CHCS, what is the purpose for running reports during end-of-day
a. To increase the morale of the MTF staff.
b. To improve the operations, services, and support of the MTF.
c. To provide data to accounting section personnel for billing.
d. No reports are run during end-of-day processing.
22. (008) Which report is run to identify those beneficiaries
whose eligibility at the time of enrollment will soon change and
beneficiaries whose enrollment entitlements may therefore change?
a. Enrollment/Disenrollment Discrepancy Report.
b. MCP DEERS Ineligibility Report.
c. Disenrollment Summary by Reason.
d. Change in Eligibility Enrollment Roster.
23. (009) When is the MTF appointment system evaluated?
24. (009) Which one of the following services will not be
provided by the MTF appointment system:
a. initial appointments in all clinics.
b. maintaining provider personal master schedules.
c. referral appointments to other MTFs.
d. follow-up appointments in all clinics.
25. (009) Which of the following is not an option within the
CHCS appointment scheduling function:
a. book appointments in a clinic for a patient.
b. overbook an appointment for a patient.
c. split an appointment slot and book one of the modified slots.
d. all are options within the appointment scheduling function.
26. (010) When active duty members in-process, a 4A0 from the
MTF picks up members’ medical records from the squadron, the MPF, or
a. the member’s house.
b. finance briefing.
c. transferring MTF.
d. Commander’s Support Staff (CSS).
27. (010) After members’ records are in-processed through the
MTF, to whom does the HCM charge them out for review?
a. Primary care manager (PCM).
b. Physical exams section.
c. MTF commander.
28. (011) When an active duty member is PCSing they may pickup
their 19-year old dependent’s medical record if:
a. they have the dependent’s ID card.
b. they want to, as the medical record belongs to their dependent.
c. there is written consent in the medical record.
d. the dependent’s mother is with the active duty member.
29. (011) When an active duty member is retiring in the local
area what is done with the family member’s medical records?
a. Kept at the MTF.
b. Given to the member to keep.
c. Placed in a sealed envelope to be taken to the MPF.
d. Sent to St. Louis
30. (011) If a member is being discharged and does not have
orders, who must provide a memorandum explaining the circumstances so the member
may pick up their records?
a. Area Defense Counsel.
b. Member’s unit.
d. MTF commander.
31. (012) Which one of the following is not a benefit of using
KG-Ambulatory Data System (ADS)?
a. Save encounter form procurement costs.
b. Provides access to MPF databases.
c. Gives providers access to all medical codes.
d. Patient diagnosis history tracked.
32. (012) Which of the following is not a report run through the
a. Clinic Workload for Inpatient Visits.
b. Alphabetic Patient List by Provider.
c. Patient Encounter by Technician.
d. Procedures by Provider.
33. (013) Information printed on the Ambulatory Encounter
Summary includes sequence numbers, diagnosis codes, and
a. sponsor name.
b. procedure codes.
c. sponsor Social Security number.
d. date of last treatment.
34. (013) Who is responsible for inputting all diagnosis
information into CHCS?
a. The HSM working in the clinic.
b. The nurse working in the clinic.
c. The patient.
d. The provider.
35. (013) Within CHCS, privileged providers who do not make
medical decisions include all of the following except
a. medical service corps officers.
c. social workers.
36. (014) As a minimum, each document filed in a patient’s
medical record should include patient’s name, family member prefix, sponsor
Social Security number, and:
a. name of MTF maintaining the records.
b. patient’s Social Security number.
c. sponsor’s unit.
d. patient’s age.
37. (014) Where would Optional Form 522, Request for
Administration of Anesthesia and for Performance of Operations and Other
Procedures, be filed in the AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient?
a. Section 1.
b. Section 2.
c. Section 3.
d. Section 4.
38. (014) Where is the withdrawal of material from an outpatient
medical record to an inpatient medical record recorded?
a. No notation is required.
b. In the inpatient record.
c. On AF Form 1480, Summary of Care
d. On SF 600, Health Record-Chronological Record of Medical Care.
39. (015) Outpatient records of active duty personnel assigned
to the base are inventoried at least how often?
40. (015) To complete an active duty inventory, you should
obtain a computer roster from the:
a. Major Command.
b. Unit CSS.
c. MTF CSS.
41. (015) What form is used to request health records previously
retired to the National Personnel Records Center (NPRC)?
a. DD Form 877.
b. DD Form 877-1.
c. AF Form 1942.
d. DD Form 2138.
42. (016) Who has the authority to set up or close down an
inpatient record library at an MTF?
a. HQ AFMOA/SGOI.
b. MTF commander.
c. Wing commander.
d. HQ AFMOA/SGOM.
43. (016) If a newborn is transferred to another MTF during
initial hospitalization, send the Fetal Monitoring Strips:
a. to the outpatient records section.
b. to the inpatient records section.
c. with the patient.
d. to the NPRC.
44. (016) When transferring patients to nonmilitary treatment
facilities, you can send with the patient:
a. nothing, all health records and documents stay at the MTF.
b. original inpatient health record.
c. either a transcript or copies of pertinent pages.
d. original outpatient health record.
45. (017) The International Classification of Diseases, 9th
Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-9-CM) is divided into how many sections?
46. (017) The ___________, lists diagnoses in numeric sequence.
a. procedures tabular list.
b. diseases alphabetical list.
c. procedures alphabetical list.
d. diseases tabular list.
47. (017) In the ICD-9-CM, what are supplemental series of codes
48. (018) In the ICD-9-CM, what does the acronym NEC mean?
a. “not elsewhere coded”
b. “no existing codes”
c. “no existing classifications”
d. “not elsewhere classified”
49. (018) In the ICD-9-CM, what do brackets enclose?
b. supplementary words.
c. series of terms.
d. nonessential modifiers.
50. (018) In the ICD-9-CM, what notation further defines or
clarifies the content of a chapter, subchapter, category, subcategory, of
a. Use additional codes.
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