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CDC 4A071

HEALTH SERVICES MANAGEMENT (HSM) CRAFTSMAN

Volume 2, Managed Care



1. (201) Who is responsible for identifying service members whose qualification for worldwide duty is in doubt?

a. Member’s Unit.
b. Military Treatment Facility (MTF) commander.
c. Local Military Personnel Flight (MPF).
d. Medical corps officers.

2. (201) How many days does the provider have to provide a narrative summary to the Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) clerk?

a. 15 days.
b. 30 days.
c. 45 days.
d. 60 days.
 

3. (202) Who has the authority to retire or separate members who can no longer perform the duties of their office?

a. Secretary of the Air Force.
b. Wing commander.
c. MTF commander.
d. Medical corps officer.

4. (203) Any reports, consults, and MEBs will not be adjudicated and will be returned to the MTF commander if older than

a. 30 days
b. 60 days.
c. 90 days.
d. 120 days.
 

5. (204) Whose duty is it to make sure that each MEB case is complete, accurate, and fully documented before it is sent to the Physical Evaluation Board (PEB)?

a. Patient Administration flight commander.
b. MEB clerk.
c. Physical Evaluation Board Liaison Officer (PEBLO).
d. MTF commander.

6. (205) Who is responsible for ensuring that members are fully counseled concerning their rights and privileges at each step in the process?

a. MEB clerk.
b. MEB recorder.
c. PEBLO.
d. MTF commander

7. (206) When a finding of mental competency is required, how many medical officers must be on the MEB?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

8. (207) The MTF commander has review and approval authority over the AF Form 618, Medical Board Report. The authority may be delegated to

a. senior active duty medical corps officer assigned to their staff.
b. senior active duty nurse corps officer assigned to their staff.
c. senior active duty medical service corps officer assigned to their staff.
d. military personnel flight commander.

9. (208) When the MEB finds the member physically qualified for continued military service worldwide, they render a finding of

a. temporary disability retirement list.
b. permanent retirement.
c. refer to PEB.
d. return to duty.
 

10. (209) On AF Form 618, Medical Board Report, the MEB clerk checks to ensure complete and accurate entries are made in items

a. 1-40.
b. 1-37.
c. 1-30.
d. 1-27.
 

11. (209) The MEB clerk must verify the separation or retirement date of each evaluee and request medical hold if the evaluee has an established date of separation or retirement within how many days?

a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 60.
d. 90.
 

12. (210) Medical boards may address active duty members of other branches of the US Armed Forces as well as those members of their ARCs, except when the member is

a. within 60 days of retirement.
b. an active duty general officer.
c. preparing to deploy.
d. a really mean Marine Sergeant Major.
 

13. (211) How often are members on Temporary Disability Retirement List (TDRL) required to be examined?

a. every 6 months.
b. every 12 months.
c. every 18 months.
d. every 24 months.
 

14. (212) The purpose of the TDRL periodic reevaluation is to determine

a. if the member’s condition has changed since retirement or previous TDRL evaluation.
b. if the member’s condition has changed since separation, reassignment or confinement.
c. if the member should be removed from the TDRL.
d. if the member should be removed from the PDRL.
 

15. (212) Within how many days should medical reports be provided to HQ AFPC/DPPD?

a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.
 

16. (213) What form does the Air Force use to publish a 4-T profile?

a. AF Form 348.
b. AF Form 422.
c. AF Form 502.
d. AF Form 618.
 

17. (213) A narrative summary review or MEB is required on all Assignment Limitation Code-C personnel at what interval?

a. During his or her birth month.
b. Prior to each projected PCS.
c. Annually in the month member was put on the code-C.
d. When directed by the member’s unit commander.


18. (214) A service member whose death is imminent is not expected to survive longer than

a. 8 hours.
b. 12 hours.
c. 48 hours.
d. 72 hours.
 

19. (214) In the event the member or NOK requests expeditious process of the PEB, who must the PEBLO contact?

a. HQ AF/SG.
b. HQ ARC.
c. HQ AFPC/DPPD.
d. Wing Commander.
 

20. (215) When the service member is in a civilian hospital, who is briefed on the financial responsibility of the stay if the member is retired?

a. member’s first sergeant.
b. member’s unit commander.
c. member’s next of kin.
d. wing commander.
 

21. (216) Tricare Service Centers will work jointly with the MTFs, Lead Agents (LA), the individual services and

a. wing commander.
b. local community leaders.
c. MAJCOMs.
d. health affairs.
 

22. (216) Who serves as the technical representative for the contract for healthcare issues on the LA’s staff?

a. Program manager.
b. Administrative contract manager.
c. Patient administration commander.
d. MTF commander.
 

23. (217) Monitoring direct care regional expenses and costs fall under which LA responsibility?

a. Readiness.
b. Regional Business Management.
c. Contract Management.
d. Marketing.
 

24. (217) Which of the following is not the LAs responsibility?

a. Integration issues.
b. Readiness.
c. Security.
d. Marketing.
 

25. (218) If there are any deficiencies observed, who should the Contractor Officer Technical Representative (COTR) communicate with both orally and written?

a. MTF commander.
b. Contractor (Humana, Sierra, TriWest, and Health Net Fed Services).
c. Tricare flight commander.
d. Wing commander.
 

26. (218) The COTR will verify contractor’s records regarding licensure, certification, and education remain current and will post all changes to the

a. contracting officer representative computer database.
b. patient administration flight log.
c. COTR spreadsheet.
d. MTF commander.
 

27. (219) Which form does the COR utilize to certify government acceptance?

a. AF Form 250.
b. DD Form 250.
c. AF Form 570.
d. SF 600.
 

28. (220) Supplemental services provided at MTFs are an example of which type of resource sharing?

a. Primary.
b. Secondary.
c. External.
d. Internal.
 

29. (220) Whose responsibility is it to develop and implement a resource-sharing program for seeking agreements with individual MTF commanders?

a. MTF commander.
b. Tricare flight commander.
c. The contractor (Humana, Sierra, TriWest and Health Net Federal Services).
d. COTR.
 

30. (221) Internal resource sharing shall be based upon written agreements between the contractor and who else?

a. MTF commander.
b. Provider staff.
c. Chief, Medical Staff.
d. COTR.
 

31. (221) The contractor should submit the finalized plan to the Lead Agent no later than what time frame?

a. 90 calendar days prior to the start of each new health care delivery option period.
b. 60 calendar days prior to the start of each new health care delivery option period.
c. 30 calendar days prior to the start of each new health care delivery option period.
d. 15 calendar days prior to the start of each new health care delivery option period.
 

32. (221) The contractor shall provide the MTF commander with a complete cost analysis within how many calendar days?

a. 7.
b. 15.
c. 30.
d. 45.
 

33. (221) Who will ensure that resource-sharing activity is correctly reported in the remaining years of the contract?

a. Lead Agent.
b. COTR.
c. MTF commander.
d. Wing commander.
 

34. (222) Which of the following is a priority identified by the AFMS Council?

a. Collect allocated funds from MTFs.
b. Reengineer civilian facility care.
c. Assign essential personnel to critically manned locations.
d. Reengineer primary care services.
 

35. (222) Which of the following is not a desired end state of recapture of private sector care?

a. Maximum recapture of private sector care.
b. Utilization of third party collection.
c. Maximum Prime enrollment.
d. Efficient use of MTF resources matched to appropriate demand.
 

36. (223) Which of the following is not a benefit of using epidemiology?

a. Become familiar with data and extent of health problem.
b. Detailed description of the health of the population.
c. Identifies population at risk of acquiring disease.
d. Provides clues as to the origination of a specific disease.
 

37. (224) Which tool includes a combination of focused education, personal coaching, and follow-up provided to individuals with a specific disease condition?

a. Disease management.
b. Case management.
c. Consumer training.
d. High-risk intervention.
 

38. (224) This tool is used for the early detection of clinical problems leading to better outcomes, or to identify the need for clinical preventive services?

a. Case management.
b. Disease management.
c. Screening.
d. Lifestyle behavior change.
 

39. (225) Who, by policy and regulation, are the only staff members authorized to deal with the media, both military and civilian?

a. Wing protocol office.
b. MTF protocol office.
c. OIC, Tricare office.
d. PAOs.


40. (225) Which of the following Air Force internal information method reaches a large percentage of those who live on the installation?

a. Weekly bulletin.
b. Base newspaper.
c. Armed Forces Radio and Television Service.
d. Commander’s calls.


41. (226) For Tricare education and information, which audience is most important?

a. Military retiree.
b. Active duty member.
c. Military spouse.
d. Wing commander.
 

42. (226) Which of the following is an organization that assists military members in matters of health and welfare?

a. United Nations.
b. WHO.
c. Department of Defense.
d. American Red Cross.
 

43. (227) How often is the Health Care Survey of DOD Beneficiaries (HCSDB) conducted?

a. Annually.
b. Semi-annually.
c. Quarterly.
d. Monthly.
 

44. (227) How many sections is the HCSDB broken into?

a. 3.
b. 5.
c. 7.
d. 9.
 

45. (228) Research has shown that a questionnaire should be how long?

a. One-page, front to back.
b. One half-page.
c. One paragraph.
d. It doesn’t matter.
 

46. (228) Which of the following is not a questionnaire pitfall?

a. Complicated wording.
b. No graphics utilized.
c. Jargon.
d. Double-barreled questions.
 

47. (229) Who shall, by regulation, require the establishment of Beneficiary Counseling and Assistance Coordinator (BCAC) positions?

a. MTF commander.
b. Wing commander.
c. Secretary of Defense.
d. President of the United States.
 

48. (229) The Lead Agent BCAC will ensure resolution of congressional/priority inquiries within how many days?

a. 10 working days.
b. 15 working days.
c. 30 working days.
d. 45 working days.
 

49. (230) While utilizing available resources, who is responsible for the activities associated with debt collections?

a. Base accounting and finance office.
b. Lead agent.
c. Department of Defense.
d. The MTF.
 

50. (230) How often will the MTF Debt Collection Assistance Officer (DCAO) provide workload data to the Lead Agent DCAO?

a. Daily.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. Quarterly.

 

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