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CDC 4N151 Vol 3

Surgical Service Journeyman

Questions 51 - 100 of 100

by CMW
Version 4N151B-03-0808
Effective 12 August 2009




51. (421) A diagnostic endoscopic examination of the lower urinary tract is called a

a. cystoscopy

b. laparoscopy

c. hysteroscopy

d. mediastinoscopy


52. (421) What type of x-ray procedure is often done in conjunction with a cystoscopy?

a. Cholangiogram

b. Electromyogram

c. Cystometrogram

d. Retrograde pyelogram


53. (422) Removal of prostatic tissue through a resectoscope is known surgically as a

a. retropubic resection

b. suprapubic resection

c. transurethral resection

d. suprapic cystostomy


54. (422) When does lasering begin during a transurethral resection resection of the bladder procedure?

a. After the surgeon locates the ureteral orifice

b. After the obturator is removed from its sheath

c. Before the surgeon locates the ureteral orifice

d. Before the obturator is removed from its sheath


55. (423) Prior to the cleansing skin prep, a patient’s eyelashes are clipped using small scissors with the blades coated with

a. vaseline

b. collodion

c. xylocaine

d. xeroform


56. (423) Which of these may be used as a dye or stain to diagnose retinal pathology or corneal abrasion?

a. Fluorescein sodium

b. Neomycin sulfate

c. Acetylcholine

d. Pilocarpine


57. (425) Removal of an opaque lens (in the eye) is known as cataract

a. resection

b. recession

c. extraction

d. enucleation


58. (425) What is used to drape and outline the operative eye during a cataract extraction procedure?

a. Plastic c-drape

b. Extremity sheet

c. Transverse sheet

d. Plastic fenestrated sheet


59. (426) Removal of a portion of an ocular muscle and suturing the remaining muscle ends together is called

a. recession

b. resection

c. strabismus

d. myomectectomy


60. (427) What is used to remove and debride surface cells and epithelium during photorefractive keratectomy procedures?

a. Calibri forceps

b. Van Ness scissors

c. #11 scalpel blade

d. Amoils epithelial scrubber


61. (428) The surgical restoration of an injured “ear drum” is known as

a. stapedectomy

b. tympanoplasty

c. tympanomastiodectomy

d. myringotomy with insertion of drainage tubes


62. (428) A tympanic graft is held in place with

a. clips

b. sutures

c. gelfoam

d. steri-strips


63. (428) Which gland is removed if the patient suffers from a diffuse goiter?

a. Adrenal

b. Thymus

c. Thyroid

d. Pituitary


64. (428) Which surgical procedure may be done to provide long-term respiratory support?

a. Tracheostomy

b. Trachelopexy

c. Tracheorrhaphy

d. Trachelorrhaphy


65. (429) Initally, acute otitis media is surgically treated by

a. stapedectomy

b. tympanoplasty

c. tympanomastoidectomy

d. myringotomy with insertion of drainage tubes


66. (429) A Hurd dissector is routinely used in which surgical procedure?

a. Mastoidectomy

b. Appendectomy

c. Tonsillectomy

d. Craniectomy


67. (430) Functional endoscopic surgery is the primary surgical treatment for

a. cholesteatoma

b. chronic sinusitis

c. damaged ossicles

d. chronic otitis media


68. (430) During functional endoscopic surgery, what instrument is used to enlarge each sinus?

a. Nasal elevator

b. Antrum punch

c. Coakley curettes

d. Takahashi forceps


69. (431) Which of the following is not an indication for performing an uvulopalatopharyngoplasty procedure?

a. O2 saturation below 80

b. Apnea index worse than 20

c. Significant daytime sleepiness

d. Damaged tympanic membrane


70. (431) Following uvulopalatopharyngoplasty procedures, mucosal edges are closed with a

a. running sutures

b. vertical mattress sutures

c. simple interrupted sutures

d. horizontal mattress sutures


71. (432) What occurs when the bitting surfaces of the teeth do not meet properly?

a. Malocclusion

b. Conjunctivitis

c. Hypermobility

d. Atropic epithelium


72. (432) What specific postoperative precaution should be taken for patients who have had a mandibular fracture surgically reduced?

a. Apply cricoids pressure

b. Avoid exposure to x-rays

c. Send wire cutters with the patient

d. Tape a cricothyrotomy kit to the chart


73. (433) Epinepherine is injected around a diseased tooth before extraction to

a. aid in hemostasis

b. loosen the tooth

c. prevent nausea

d. prevent edema


74. (434) What joint is incised during a TMJ arthroscopy?

a. Knee joint

b. Synovial joint

c. Fibrous joints

d. Temprormandibular joint


75. (435) If you must sterilize silastic implants, you should first don gloves and

a. disinfect them in alcohol

b. disinfect them in gluteraldehyde

c. wash them in a mild non-detergent soap

d. wash them in providone-iodine detergent


76. (435) To assist them in observing the patient’s skin color, many plastic surgeons prefer to use

a. tincture of benzoin

b. a phenolic detergent

c. a colorless prep solution

d. only betadine paint (not scrub)


77. (436) What kind of graft comes from the patient’s own body?

a. Autograft

b. Cable graft

c. Patch graft

d. Porcine graft


78. (436) Removal of excessive redundant skin around the eyes is done by

a. iridectomy

b. odontectomy

c. stapedectomy

d. blepharoplasty


79. (436) Which of the following would not be needed as basic instrumentation for a blepharoplasty procedure?

a. Suture material

b. Bladder retractor

c. Plastic instruments

d. Cotton-tipped applicators


80. (437) Once the muscle is removed during an endoscopic brow lift procedure, what do surgeons used to secure the forehead to optimal height?

a. Steri strip

b. Surgical skin staples

c. Fixation device or suture

d. Fixation plates and screws


81. (438) Which type of sponge is often moistened with saline and used to help achieve hemostasis during neurosurgical procedures?

a. Kerlix

b. Cellulose

c. Cottonoid

d. Dental Roll


82. (439) What is the most basic form of craniotomy?

a. Burr hole

b. Diathermy

c. Cordotomy

d. Pallidotomy


83. (440) What position in the patient place is for an ulnar nerve transposition procedure?

a. Prone

b. Supine

c. Lithotomy

d. Jack-knife


84. (440) Why does the surgeon split the muscle and fascia tissue at each end of the nerve during an ulnar nerve transposition procedure?

a. Increase the closure time

b. Increase the patient recovery time

c. Ensure the nerve has adequate blood supply

d. Ensure the nerve does not become kinked after closure


85. (411) What endoscopic procedure is performed to remove herniated disc material that is causing pain and pressure in the back?

a. Appendectomy

b. Tracheostomy

c. Craniotomy

d. Discectomy


86. (442) During cardiovascular or thoracic surgery, electrocardiogram and arterial lines are used for

a. infusing blood or blood products

b. administration of anesthetic agents

c. monitoring and assessing the patient

d. all of the above


87. (443) Arterial prostheses are made of what material?

a. Paper

b. Nylon

c. Plastic

d. Dacron


88. (444) The removal of a throumbus from the popliteal system is known as

a. thoacotomy

b. mediastinoscopy

c. coronary artery bypass

d. femoral thrombolectomy


89. (445) Which of the following solutions is injected into the coronary artery and used in conjunction with fluoroscopy to identify the affected area during a coronary artery angioplasty?

a. Contrast solution

b. Glycine solution

c. Neo-synephrine

d. Methelyn blue


90. (446) Endovascular aneurysm repair may be performed in all of the following locations except

a. catheterization laboratory

b. radiology department

c. respiratory therapy

d. operating room


91. (446) Why is an artiogram performed at the end of an endovascular aneurysm repair procedure?

a. Check for retrobulbar blackage

b. Check for an endoleak of the stent-graft

c. Make sure the fluoroscopy machine is working

d. Make sure the radiolucent OR bed is positioned properly


92. (446) What type of sutures is used to close the incision site after endovascular aneurysm repair?

a. Running

b. Interrupted

c. Purse string

d. Subcuticular


93. (447) What position is the patient placed in to perform an endovenous laser treatment?

a. prone

b. Supine

c. Fowler’s

d. Lithotomy


94. (447) What is placed over the end of the table while the legs are lifted and prepped by the circulator during an endovenous laser treatment procedure?

a. Fenestrated sheet

b. Hand drape

c. Foot sheet

d. Split sheet


95. (448) What surgical procedure is an incision into the thoracic cavity to provide surgical access to the organs of the chest?

a. thoracotomy

b. Thoracentesis

c. Thoracoplasty

d. Thoracostomy


96. (448) The opening between the aorta and pulmonary artery, which exists prenatally but closes soon after birth, is called a

a. tricuspid valve

b. pulmonary artery bond

c. coarctation of the aorta

d. patent ductus arteriosis


97. (449) A pacemaker is implanted into a patient to manage

a. angina

b. dysrythmias

c. gastric reflux

d. high blood pressure


98. (449) What equipment is used to aid the surgeon in guiding a J-tipped guidewire into the right atrium when implanting a pacemaker?

a. Teflon pledgets

b. Doppler probe

c. Fluoroscopy

d. Vessel loops


99. (449) What is used to hyperextend the neck during mediastinoscopy procedures?

a. Rolled towel

b. Cerebeller headrest

c. Skull clamp headrest

d. Mayfield skull clamp


100. (451) During laser assisted rigid bronchoscopy procedure the operating table is turned

a. 30 degrees

b. 60 degrees

c. 90 degrees

d. 120 degrees



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