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51. (421) A diagnostic endoscopic examination of the lower urinary tract is called a

a. cystoscopy

b. laparoscopy

c. hysteroscopy

d. mediastinoscopy

52. (421) What type of x-ray procedure is often done in conjunction with a cystoscopy?

a. Cholangiogram

b. Electromyogram

c. Cystometrogram

d. Retrograde pyelogram

53. (422) Removal of prostatic tissue through a resectoscope is known surgically as a

a. retropubic resection

b. suprapubic resection

c. transurethral resection

d. suprapic cystostomy

54. (422) When does lasering begin during a transurethral resection resection of the bladder procedure?

a. After the surgeon locates the ureteral orifice

b. After the obturator is removed from its sheath

c. Before the surgeon locates the ureteral orifice

d. Before the obturator is removed from its sheath

55. (423) Prior to the cleansing skin prep, a patient’s eyelashes are clipped using small scissors with the blades coated with

a. vaseline

b. collodion

c. xylocaine

d. xeroform

56. (423) Which of these may be used as a dye or stain to diagnose retinal pathology or corneal abrasion?

a. Fluorescein sodium

b. Neomycin sulfate

c. Acetylcholine

d. Pilocarpine

57. (425) Removal of an opaque lens (in the eye) is known as cataract

a. resection

b. recession

c. extraction

d. enucleation

58. (425) What is used to drape and outline the operative eye during a cataract extraction procedure?

a. Plastic c-drape

b. Extremity sheet

c. Transverse sheet

d. Plastic fenestrated sheet

59. (426) Removal of a portion of an ocular muscle and suturing the remaining muscle ends together is called

a. recession

b. resection

c. strabismus

d. myomectectomy

60. (427) What is used to remove and debride surface cells and epithelium during photorefractive keratectomy procedures?

a. Calibri forceps

b. Van Ness scissors

c. #11 scalpel blade

d. Amoils epithelial scrubber

61. (428) The surgical restoration of an injured “ear drum” is known as

a. stapedectomy

b. tympanoplasty

c. tympanomastiodectomy

d. myringotomy with insertion of drainage tubes

62. (428) A tympanic graft is held in place with

a. clips

b. sutures

c. gelfoam

d. steri-strips

63. (428) Which gland is removed if the patient suffers from a diffuse goiter?

a. Adrenal

b. Thymus

c. Thyroid

d. Pituitary

64. (428) Which surgical procedure may be done to provide long-term respiratory support?

a. Tracheostomy

b. Trachelopexy

c. Tracheorrhaphy

d. Trachelorrhaphy

65. (429) Initally, acute otitis media is surgically treated by

a. stapedectomy

b. tympanoplasty

c. tympanomastoidectomy

d. myringotomy with insertion of drainage tubes

66. (429) A Hurd dissector is routinely used in which surgical procedure?

a. Mastoidectomy

b. Appendectomy

c. Tonsillectomy

d. Craniectomy

67. (430) Functional endoscopic surgery is the primary surgical treatment for

a. cholesteatoma

b. chronic sinusitis

c. damaged ossicles

d. chronic otitis media

68. (430) During functional endoscopic surgery, what instrument is used to enlarge each sinus?

a. Nasal elevator

b. Antrum punch

c. Coakley curettes

d. Takahashi forceps

69. (431) Which of the following is not an indication for performing an uvulopalatopharyngoplasty procedure?

a. O2 saturation below 80

b. Apnea index worse than 20

c. Significant daytime sleepiness

d. Damaged tympanic membrane

70. (431) Following uvulopalatopharyngoplasty procedures, mucosal edges are closed with a

a. running sutures

b. vertical mattress sutures

c. simple interrupted sutures

d. horizontal mattress sutures

71. (432) What occurs when the bitting surfaces of the teeth do not meet properly?

a. Malocclusion

b. Conjunctivitis

c. Hypermobility

d. Atropic epithelium

72. (432) What specific postoperative precaution should be taken for patients who have had a mandibular fracture surgically reduced?

a. Apply cricoids pressure

b. Avoid exposure to x-rays

c. Send wire cutters with the patient

d. Tape a cricothyrotomy kit to the chart

73. (433) Epinepherine is injected around a diseased tooth before extraction to

a. aid in hemostasis

b. loosen the tooth

c. prevent nausea

d. prevent edema

74. (434) What joint is incised during a TMJ arthroscopy?

a. Knee joint

b. Synovial joint

c. Fibrous joints

d. Temprormandibular joint

75. (435) If you must sterilize silastic implants, you should first don gloves and

a. disinfect them in alcohol

b. disinfect them in gluteraldehyde

c. wash them in a mild non-detergent soap

d. wash them in providone-iodine detergent

76. (435) To assist them in observing the patient’s skin color, many plastic surgeons prefer to use

a. tincture of benzoin

b. a phenolic detergent

c. a colorless prep solution

d. only betadine paint (not scrub)

77. (436) What kind of graft comes from the patient’s own body?

a. Autograft

b. Cable graft

c. Patch graft

d. Porcine graft

78. (436) Removal of excessive redundant skin around the eyes is done by

a. iridectomy

b. odontectomy

c. stapedectomy

d. blepharoplasty

79. (436) Which of the following would not be needed as basic instrumentation for a blepharoplasty procedure?

a. Suture material

b. Bladder retractor

c. Plastic instruments

d. Cotton-tipped applicators

80. (437) Once the muscle is removed during an endoscopic brow lift procedure, what do surgeons used to secure the forehead to optimal height?

a. Steri strip

b. Surgical skin staples

c. Fixation device or suture

d. Fixation plates and screws

81. (438) Which type of sponge is often moistened with saline and used to help achieve hemostasis during neurosurgical procedures?

a. Kerlix

b. Cellulose

c. Cottonoid

d. Dental Roll

82. (439) What is the most basic form of craniotomy?

a. Burr hole

b. Diathermy

c. Cordotomy

d. Pallidotomy

83. (440) What position in the patient place is for an ulnar nerve transposition procedure?

a. Prone

b. Supine

c. Lithotomy

d. Jack-knife

84. (440) Why does the surgeon split the muscle and fascia tissue at each end of the nerve during an ulnar nerve transposition procedure?

a. Increase the closure time

b. Increase the patient recovery time

c. Ensure the nerve has adequate blood supply

d. Ensure the nerve does not become kinked after closure

85. (411) What endoscopic procedure is performed to remove herniated disc material that is causing pain and pressure in the back?

a. Appendectomy

b. Tracheostomy

c. Craniotomy

d. Discectomy

86. (442) During cardiovascular or thoracic surgery, electrocardiogram and arterial lines are used for

a. infusing blood or blood products

b. administration of anesthetic agents

c. monitoring and assessing the patient

d. all of the above

87. (443) Arterial prostheses are made of what material?

a. Paper

b. Nylon

c. Plastic

d. Dacron

88. (444) The removal of a throumbus from the popliteal system is known as

a. thoacotomy

b. mediastinoscopy

c. coronary artery bypass

d. femoral thrombolectomy

89. (445) Which of the following solutions is injected into the coronary artery and used in conjunction with fluoroscopy to identify the affected area during a coronary artery angioplasty?

a. Contrast solution

b. Glycine solution

c. Neo-synephrine

d. Methelyn blue

90. (446) Endovascular aneurysm repair may be performed in all of the following locations except

a. catheterization laboratory

b. radiology department

c. respiratory therapy

d. operating room

91. (446) Why is an artiogram performed at the end of an endovascular aneurysm repair procedure?

a. Check for retrobulbar blackage

b. Check for an endoleak of the stent-graft

c. Make sure the fluoroscopy machine is working

d. Make sure the radiolucent OR bed is positioned properly

92. (446) What type of sutures is used to close the incision site after endovascular aneurysm repair?

a. Running

b. Interrupted

c. Purse string

d. Subcuticular

93. (447) What position is the patient placed in to perform an endovenous laser treatment?

a. prone

b. Supine

c. Fowler’s

d. Lithotomy

94. (447) What is placed over the end of the table while the legs are lifted and prepped by the circulator during an endovenous laser treatment procedure?

a. Fenestrated sheet

b. Hand drape

c. Foot sheet

d. Split sheet

95. (448) What surgical procedure is an incision into the thoracic cavity to provide surgical access to the organs of the chest?

a. thoracotomy

b. Thoracentesis

c. Thoracoplasty

d. Thoracostomy

96. (448) The opening between the aorta and pulmonary artery, which exists prenatally but closes soon after birth, is called a

a. tricuspid valve

b. pulmonary artery bond

c. coarctation of the aorta

d. patent ductus arteriosis

97. (449) A pacemaker is implanted into a patient to manage

a. angina

b. dysrythmias

c. gastric reflux

d. high blood pressure

98. (449) What equipment is used to aid the surgeon in guiding a J-tipped guidewire into the right atrium when implanting a pacemaker?

a. Teflon pledgets

b. Doppler probe

c. Fluoroscopy

d. Vessel loops

99. (449) What is used to hyperextend the neck during mediastinoscopy procedures?

a. Rolled towel

b. Cerebeller headrest

c. Skull clamp headrest

d. Mayfield skull clamp

100. (451) During laser assisted rigid bronchoscopy procedure the operating table is turned

a. 30 degrees

b. 60 degrees

c. 90 degrees

d. 120 degrees

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