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Airman's Manual
Knowledge Test

Exam 6



1.  Which of the following is not one of the Immediate Action Procedures to follow if your weapon fails to fire?

     (A)  Slap downward on the magazine to ensure it is seated
     (B)  Pull the charging handle to the rear
     (C)  Check for an obstruction in the receiver area
     (D)  Tab forward assist button to ensure the bolt is fully forward


2.  Of the following which is the correct posture for MOPP level 4?

     (A)  Overgarment, protective mask, hood, gloves, overboots and field gear worn.
     (B)  IPE available for immediate donning.
     (C)  Overgarment, protective mask, hood, overboots and field gear worn; gloves carried.
     (D)  Overgarment and field gear worn; overboots, mask and gloves carried.


3. When moving from one zone to another, you must coordinate your movement with the _____

    (A)  SRC
    (B)  WOC
    (C)  DEA
    (D)  UCC


4.  When firing, ensure your nose is no further than ___ finger's width behind the charging handle.

     (A)  1
     (B)  2
     (C)  3
     (D)  4


5.  According to the Standardized Attack Warning Signals for NBCC medium and high threat areas, a yellow alarm indicates an attack is probable within ___ minutes.

     (A)  15
     (B)  45
     (C)  30
     (D)  60


6.  An expedient hazard marker with a "G" on it indicates what type of hazard?

     (A)  Biological
     (B)  Chemical
     (C)  Radiological
     (D)  UXO (unexploded ordnance)


7.  Radiation sickness is contagious.

    (A)  True
    (B)  False


8.  An expedient hazard marker with a "U" on it indicates what type of hazard?

     (A)  Biological
     (B)  Chemical
     (C)  Radiological
     (D)  UXO (unexploded ordnance)


9.  When firing, it is best to focus on the front sight.

     (A)  True
     (B)  False


10.  When marking your CPO (Chemical Protective Overgarment), what three locations should be marked?

        (A)  helmet, right boot, back of left glove
        (B)  jacket (over wearer's right breast), top of helmet, back of left glove
        (C)  helmet (front and rear), protective hood, jacket (over wearer's right breast)
        (D)  helmet (right and left sides), back of jacket, protective hood.


11. The _____ provides instructions for movement between zones.

       (A)  SEC
       (B)  SRC
       (C)  UCC
       (D)  WOC


12.  In MOPP level 0 overgarment and field gear is worn; overboots, mask and gloves are carried.

       (A)  True
       (B)  False


13.  When preparing to deploy, you should not worry about becoming familiar with any host nation sensitivities because your deployed location commander will brief you when you arrive.

       (A)  True
       (B)  False


14.  When wearing the overgarment, women do not need to tuck their hair inside the jacket.

       (A)  True
       (B)  False


15.  In a hot environment, daily fluid intake should not exceed ____ quarts.

       (A)  4
       (B)  12
       (C)  6
       (D)  8


16.  If a large number of weapons must be destroyed to prevent use by the enemy, it doesn't matter which parts you destroy.

       (A)  True
       (B)  False


17.  When treating a wound, you should always remove the old bandage before applying a new one.

       (A)  True
       (B)  False


18.  M8 paper should not be placed on a surface that may exceed ____ degrees in temperature.

       (A)  90
       (B)  100
       (C)  125
       (D)  115


19.  If a vehicle is disabled by an IED, it is highly unlikely that it will be followed by a secondary attack.

       (A)  True
       (B)  False


20.  When preparing your personal bag, you should pack a _____ to _____ day supply of personal consumable items to help you through your initial stay.

       (A)  10 to 15
       (B)  5 to 10
       (C)  90 to 120
       (D)  30 to 45

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Page Added on: 16 January 2006

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Revised: 02/27/06.