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1. (601) When are surgical service apprentices (3- levels) allowed to pull call?

a. After completing their CDC’s

b. Never. 3- level technicians do not pull call

c. When their supervisors judge they are ready

d. 1- year after graduation from technician school

2. (601) The daily surgery schedule of operations is normally developed by the

a. NCOIC

b. nurse manager

c. chief of surgery

d. operating room supervisor

3. (601) To maintain a surgical technician’s “war readiness,” strict specialization in daily scheduling should be

a. encouraged to promote a broad base of experience

b. discouraged to promote a broad base of experience

c. encouraged to increase expertise in one surgical specialty

d. discouraged to increase expertise in one surgical specialty

4. (602) When assessing the quality of formal training course graduates, which feedback method is not evaluated by the course for required action?

a. Surveys

b. Written letters

c. Telephone conversations

d. Climate assessment critiques

5. (602) What tool is used specifically the survey the career field when accomplishing an occupational survey report?

a. Job Inventory

b. Training Extract

c. Job Qualification Standard

d. Career Field Education and Training Plan

6. (603) A tool that defines the duties and responsibilities of a designated position without delineating how it should be done is known as a

a. job inventory

b. job description

c. performance standard

d. performance element

7. (603) The tool that tells you how to do, and how well you are expected to do, a group of key tasks is called a

a. job inventory

b. job description

c. performance standard

d. performance element

8. (603) When evaluating a critical element of a task, what type of measurement standard is used?

a. Go/no go

b. 90% accuracy

c. Minimal assists

d. Corrective action

9. (604) Field publications originate at

a. Air Staff

b. The Pentagon

c. MAJCOM level or below

d. MAJCOM level or above

10. (604) What do you call the publications kept in your duty section?

a. Publication set

b. Master publication library

c. Personal publication library

d. Functional publication library

11. (604) How are civilian publications ordered of your MTF does not have a hospital library?

a. Base library

b. Over the internet

c. Medical logistics

d. Resource management office

12. (605) The primary reference for everyday Air Force writing is

a. AFH 37-137, The Tongue and Quill

b. AFPAM 36-2241, Professional Development Guide

c. United States Government Printing Office Style Manual

d. American Psychological Association Publication Style Manual

13. (605) When writing an intra-departmental memorandum, you should use

a. letterhead paper

b. plain bond paper

c. formal letter format

d. informal letter format

14. (605) To correct an error on a patient’s record, you should

a. completely obliterate the erroneous information

b. draw a double line through the erroneous information

c. draw a single line through the erroneous information

d. use “ white-out” or correction tape so you can write over the erroneous information

15. (606) The means to identify and act on problems in the health care setting that have or may cause harm to patients, visitors, employees, or property is known as

a. risk management

b. total quality management

c. continuous improvement

d. hazardous communication

16. (606) Who chairs the performance improvement and risk management committee?

a. Chief Nurse

b. MTF Commander

c. Infection control nurse

d. Chief of Hospital/Clinical Services

17. (607) The area of quality assurance that most directly relates to your daily duties is

a. tissue review

b. infection control

c. risk management

d. surgical case review

18. (607) A quality assurance tool that is conducted by an operating room nurse the day before surgery is the

a. records review

b. patient care audit

c. preoperative interview

d. performance appraisal

19. (607) If you see a hole in a surgeon’s glove and you say nothing, you are violating the quality assurance ethic of

a. peer review

b. empowerment

c. self-assessment

d. surgical conscience

20. (608) From a resource management perspective, a duty section is known as a

a. bogey

b. cost center

c. business office

d. responsibility center

21. (608) The lowest level at which costs may be accumulated in the resource management chain is the

a. cost center

b. cost account

c. responsibility center

d. responsibility account

22. (609) Who appoints cost center managers?

a. Flight Chief

b. Superintendent of NCOIC

c. Director of Resource Management

d. Medical Treatment Facility Commander

23. (609) Personnel in what office are responsible for training cost center managers?

a. Medical Materiel Office

b. Resource Advisory Office

c. Resource Management Office

d. Medical Equipment Management Office

24. (610) A generic measurement of the amount of work done by one individual in one hour is known as

a. a bogey

b. workload

c. a man-hour

d. available time

25. (610) The mathematical formula used to calculate manpower requirements is known as a

a. man-hour

b. workload

c. manpower standard

d. manpower requirement

26. (610) Which resource management documents contains a manpower formula, a work center description, a breakdown of tasks, and skill and grade requirements of personnel?

a. Manpower Standard

b. Unit Manpower Document

c. Authorization Change Request

d. Unit Personnel Manpower Roster

27. (611) The primary tool used to make budgetary, manpower, and other important resource allocation decisions within each medical treatment facility is the

a. Business Case Analysis

b. Universal Cost Account

c. Authorization Change Request or Change Notice

d. Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System

28. (611) Each individual assigned to the medical treatment facility is required to report their individual workload using

a. UPMR

b. DEERS

c. AF Form 3078

d. MEPRS code DFBA

29. (612) Which category of responsibility indicates that the individual is accountable for property only? Any individual who has acquired possession of government property has what category of responsibility for that property?

a. Material

b. Custodial

c. Command

d. Supervisory

30. (612) What is the distinction between fraud and abuse?

a. Fraud is intentional deception for gain

b. Fraud is careless use of Air Force resources

c. Abuse is a reportable offense and fraud is not

d. Abuse is not intentional but excessive use of AF resources

31. (612) An Air Force employee can voluntarily reimburse the government for a damaged monitor if the cost is which of the following amounts?

a. $250

b. $500

c. $750

d. $1000

32. (613) An item of medical equipment with a unit cost greater than $2500 but less than $250,000, has a life expectancy of at least 5 years is classified as

a. medical expense equipment

b. a durable medical supple item

c. medical investment equipment

d. a maintenance significant supply item

33. (613) Which of the following individuals has a final authorization authority to review and approve local purchase request?

a. NCOIC CSS

b. CSS Supply custodian

c. Surgical Services Flight Commander

d. Medical Logistics Flight Commander

34. (613) The type of emergency medical purchase that restricts the customer to purchasing only enough of an item to cover the particular emergency is known as

a. pre-issue

b. consignment

c. after-the-fact procurement

d. a blanket purchase agreement

35. (614) Who assumes full responsibility for all materials requested and received by a using activity?

a. Flight chief

b. Charge nurse

c. property custodian

d. supply representative

36. (614) What automatic resupply system allows logistics personnel to automatically inventory balances and deliver routine supply requirements to the customer?

a. DMLSS

b. Forward logistics

c. Emergency pre-issue

d. Local blanket purchase agreement

37. (614) Which area of the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system lets you see all supply items in the data base?

a. Customer catalog

b. DMLSS system inbox

c. Medical treatment facility catalog

d. Customer area inventory management

38. (614) What type of non-routine issue is used when issue transactions cannot be processed through the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support system?

a. Pre- issue

b. Backorder

c. Local purchase

d. Emergency issue

39. (614) Medical materials turned in to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO) to be destroyed are

a. never accepted

b. accepted without credit

c. accepted with full credit

d. accepted for partial credit

40. (615) Before signing the custody receipt/locator listing to assume custodial responsibility for equipment you should first

a. perform a thorough inventory

b. prepare your three-year budget

c. submit an AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request

d. submit DD Form 1348-6, DOD Single Line Item Requisition Document

41. (615) When should you submit AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request, to order a piece of equipment?

a. The first day of each quarter

b. At the start of the fiscal year

c. When the equipment is delivered to you

d. When the requirement for the equipment is identified

42. (616) What customer support listing is produced each time a medical logistics personnel process a change action affecting a custodian’s equipment account?

a. Back order report

b. Custodial actions list

c. Custody receipt/locator list

d. Using activity issue/turn-in summary

43. (616) What material reference tool can be used by supply custodians to review excess material available for redistribution?

a. Custodial actions list

b. Custody receipt/locator list

c. Air Force medical logistics letter

d. Using activity issue/turn-in summary

44. (617) Where is the Medical Treatment Facility organization does Central Sterile Supply usually fall?

a. Under medical logistics in the medical support flight

b. Above medical logistics in the medical support flight

c. Under surgical services in the medical operations flight

d. Above surgical services in the medical operations flight

45. (617) Central Sterile Supply does not

a. provide a distribution and collection service

b. maintain an adequate stock of sterile and non-sterile supplies

c. develop, maintain, and update a list of sterile and non-sterile supplies

d. store and dispense medications for all elements of the MTF and satellite activities

46. (618) Disassembly, cleaning, decontamination, assembly, and packaging are all activities associated with Central Sterile Supply

a. storage

b. receiving

c. processing

d. distribution

47. (619) How to patients who need routine (non-emergency) medical care from a specialty clinic get an appointment?

a. The Primary Care/Family Practice provider schedules them for the appointment with the specialty clinic

b. Their Primary Care/Family Practice provider recommends the specialty clinic by completing a consultation request

c. By calling the central appointment desk to schedule the appointment a minimum of thirty days before requiring treatment

d. By calling the specialty clinic appointment desk to schedule the appointment a minimum of thirty days before requiring treatment

48. (619) To determine if a patient under the age of 10 years is eligible to receive care, you should check the

a. Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System

b. Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System

c. ID Card and the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System

d. ID Card and the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System

49. (619) Who oversees the completion of all documentation that must me complete before surgery?

a. Patient

b. Transport technician

c. Pre-admission clinic

d. OIC surgical services

50. (620) Why are good telephone techniques important for clinic personnel?

a. Can pursue part-timework in telemarketing

b. Patients will be at ease and convinced you have an outstanding clinic

c. Air Force policy directs good telephone techniques in all medical facilities

d. Patients are influenced by the presence (or absence) of good telephone technique

51. (620) Should technicians give medical advice over the phone?

a. No; advice over the phone leads to inaccurate self treatment and is legally risky

b. Yes; the problem may be simple and the patient could treat themselves

c. No; only doctors can legally give medical advice over the telephone

d. Yes; many medical problems do not require a doctor’s examination

52. (621) The health record is the property of the

a. patient

b. hospital

c. physician

d. Air Force

53. (621) Who is responsible for correctly coding the patients visit to see a provider?

a. Technician

b. Team nurse

c. Patient provider

d. Resource management office

54. (621) The main purpose behind the coding of a patients visit is to

a. ensure you clinic is properly manned

b. ensure proper credit for the patient visit

c. provide a chronological record of patient care

d. get the maximum dollar amount for third party collections

55. (622) The Readiness Skills Verification program is designed to train which type of skills?

a. Normal

b. Wartime

c. Advanced

d. Peacetime

56. (622) What is the number of months between each cycle of training under the Readiness Skills Verification program?

a. 5

b. 10

c. 15

d. 20

57. (623) How many personnel are normally deployed on a Mobile Field Surgical Team?

a. Four

b. Five

c. Six

d. Seven

58. (623) Within how many minutes is the Mobile Field Surgical Team able to achieve initial operational capability?

a. 15

b. 20

c. 25

d. 30

59. (624) With the increase in size from an EMEDS + 10 to an EMEDS + 25, how many additional OR personnel are added?

a. Two

b. Three

c. Four

d. Five

60. What piece of equipment is added to and EMEDS + 10 to accommodate increased instrumentation and processing of sterile supplies?

a. Ultra sonic cleaner

b. Large steam sterilizer

c. Peracetic acid sterilizer

d. Hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizer

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