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CDC 4N151 Vol 3

Surgical Service Journeyman

Questions 1 - 50 of 100

by CMW
Version 4N151B-03-0808
Effective 12 August 2009




1. (401) Which of these is not a reason for routinely inserting a Foley catheter into the bladder during general surgery?

a. Keeps the bladder full.

b. Reduce the risk of injuring the bladder.

c. Give the surgeon more room to operate.

d. Monitor urine output and renal function.


2. (401) What does the surgeon use to isolate the operative area of the inner abdomen to prevent contamination of other structures and areas in the peritoneal cavity?

a. Laparotomy sponges

b. 4 x 8 Raytex sponges

c. A 36” Penrose drain

d. A disposable drape sheet


3. (402) Which incision is a vertical incision approximately two inches to the right or left of the midline in the upper or lower abdomen?

a. Subcostal

b. Paramedian

c. Mcburney’s

d. Pfannenstiel’s


4. (402) Which incision is almost exclusively used for an appendectomy?

a. Subcostal

b. Paramedian

c. McBurney’s

d. Pfannenstiel’s


5. (403) During a cholangiogram, why is it very important to remove all of the air bubbles from the syringe and catheter containing the contrast media?

a. Air prevents the stones from dissolving

b. Air contaminated and may cause an infection

c. Air bubbles may appear to be stones on the x-ray

d. Air may enter the common bile duct and cause an air embolism


6. (403) The surgical removal of the entire breast without lymph node dissection is called a

a. partial mastectomy

b. radical mastectomy

c. simple mastectomy

d. modified radical mastectomy


7. (404) What type of hernia most frequently occurs in females?

a. Femoral

b. Inguinal

c. Umbilical

d. Incisional


8. (404) Which layer of tissue is reinforced with Marlex or Mersilene mesh during a hernia repair?

a. Fascia

b. Muscle

c. Peritoneum

d. Subcutaneous


9. (404) What type of biopsy is the removal of the entire breast mass?

a. Needle

b. Silverman

c. Incisional

d. Excisional


10. (404) Distended vessels of the rectum are known surgically as

a. polyps

b. fistulas

c. hemorrhoids

d. anorectal tumors


11. (404) Which clamp is used to grasp the hemorrhoids for excision?

a. Pean

b. Lahey

c. Heaney

d. Pennington


12. (405) What surgical procedure allows endoscopic visualization of the anal canal, rectum, and sigmoid colon?

a. Colposcopy

b. Cystoscopy

c. Laparoscopy

d. Sigmoidoscopy


13. (405) During laparoscopy, pneumoperiteum is established by

a. insufflations with oxygen

b. insufflations with carbon dioxide

c. infiltration with sodium chloride

d. infiltration with lactated Ringer’s


14. (405) What is the correct number of trocars typically used during a Laparoscopic Nissen fundoplication?

a. Two

b. Three

c. Four

d. Five


15. (406) Instead of a Foley, which type of device may be inserted to provide urinary drainage of the bladder after a radical GYN procedure?

a. Stille cannula

b. Cutdown catheter

c. Insufflation cannula

d. Suprapubic catheter


16. (406) Pressure against soft tissue of the leg in the lithotomy position predisposes the patient to develop

a. muscle strain

b. venous thrombus

c. radial nerve damage

d. capillary hemorrhage


17. (406) To prevent hip strain when the patient is in the lithotomy position,

a. lower legs and feet should be allowed to dangle over the end of the table

b. the legs must moved simultaneously, as a unit

c. a pillow should be placed under the sacral area

d. the feet and legs should be well padded


18. (407) When nonliving products of conception are retained in the uterus for over two months, the condition is called

a. a missed abortion

b. a complete abortion

c. an imminent abortion

d. an incomplete abortion


19. (407) A complication of childbirth caused by the placenta prematurely separating from the uterine wall is known as

a. metrorrhagia

b. placenta previa

c. dystmenorrhea

d. abruptio placentae


20. (408) A total hysterectomy combined with a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is a

a. salpingectomy

b. panhysterectomy

c. dystmenorrhea

d. abruptio placentae


21. (408) Besides obstetric and surgical staff, what other hospital personnel should be in attendance during a Cesarean section?

a. Laboratory

b. Nursery

c. X-ray

d. Ward


22. (408) Which incision is used for a Cesarean section?

a. Subcostal

b. McBurney’s

c. Pfannenstiel’s

d. Infraumbilical


23. (409) What is the correct placement of ligature sutures on a cervical specimen?

a. 2 o’clock and 6 o’clock

b. 2 o’clock and 9 o’clock

c. 3 o’clock and 6 o’clock

d. 3 o’clock and 9 o’clock


24. (410) During a laparoscopy, methylene blue is used to determine patency of the

a. fallopian tubes

b. urethra

c. cervix

d. uterus


25. (410) Laparoscopic assisted vaginal hysterectomy provides surgeons with better

a. dressing application

b. skin closure techniques

c. hemostasis for bladder repairs

d. visualization of internal structures


26. (410) Surgeons may use a laparoscope towards the end of an LAVH procedure to

a. verify hemostasis

b. assist with initial counts

c. verify removal of the uterus

d. assist with skin closure counts


27. (411) Endometrial ablation is performed to treat

a. missed abortion

b. spontaneous abortion

c. abnormal uterine bleeding

d. cephalopelvic disproportion


28. (411) Which laser technique requires the tip of the laser to be held away from the tissue to treat endometrium?

a. Dissecting technique

b. Blanching technique

c. Cragging technique

d. Dassing technique


29. (412) When transporting a patient in skeletal traction to surgery, the weights should be removed

a. only if a life-treatening situation occurs

b. only if the patient complains about the tension

c. immediately before entering the surgical suite

d. immediately before leaving the patient’s room


30. (412) If cast must be removed before an operation, they should be bivalve

a. only by the circulating surgeon

b. only by the operating surgeon

c. before the patient is brought to the operating room

d. after the patient is brought into the operating room


31. (412) When screws, plates, and other metal implants devices are used, they should be

a. made of the same type of metal to increase absorption rate

b. made of the same type metal to prevent metal break-down

c. rinsed with sterile water immediately after implant to prevent tissue reaction

d. rinsed with sterile water immediately before implant to prevent tissue reaction


32. (413) Correcting a fracture by manipulating the extremity until the bones are re-aligned without incising the skin is known as

a. open reduction

b. closed reduction

c. external fixation

d. internal fixation


33. (414) Which procedure repairs a recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder?

a. McBride

b. Putti-Platt

c. McKee-Farr

d. Austin-Moore


34. (414) When a bone plate is used for internal fixation of the forearm, it should be approximately

a. five times as long as the diameter of the bone with a minimum of two transfixion screws on each side of the fracture.

b. two times as long as the diameter of the bone with a minimum of two transfixion screws on each side of the fracture.

c. five times as long as the diameter of the bone with a minimum of five transfixion screws on each side of the fracture.

d. five times as long as the diameter of the bone with a minimum of five transfixion screws on each side of the fracture.


35. (414) Which instrument is used to smooth the bone edges of the stump of an amputated extremity?

a. Periosteal elevator

b. Steinman pin

c. Reamer

d. Rasp


36. (415) What procedure corrects a condition that is primarily thought to be caused by long-term repetitious motions of the hand, fingers, and wrist?

a. Arthroplasty

b. Palmer fasciectomy

c. Carpal tunnel release

d. Anterior should repair


37. (415) Which surgical procedure is used to correct hallux valgus (bunions)?

a. Keller

b. Cloward

c. Schwartz

d. Torkildsen


38. (415) During a bunionectomy, after removal of the exostosis, the toe and metatarsal head are held in alignment with a

a. staple

b. lag screw

c. Kirschner wire

d. malleolus screw


39. (416) During an arthroscopy, if an irrigation pump is not used, at what minimum height above the knee should the irrigation solution be suspended?

a. Two feet

b. Three feet

c. Four feet

d. Five feet


40. (416) Other than normal saline, which solution distends the knee joint during an arthroscopy?

a. Heprin

b. Dextran

c. Distilled water

d. Lactated Ringer’s


41. (416) Which of the following instruments would not be used during an arthroscopy of the knee joint?

a. Hooks

b. Probes

c. Scissors

d. Tennaculum


42. (417) Which statement is not correct regarding cystoscopic procedures?

a. The circulator should warm the prep solutions before doing the cleansing skin prep.

b. They are never performed using only topical or local infiltration for anesthesia; regional or general anesthesia is required.

c. The scrub technician generally sets up the instrument table and equipment, then removes gown and gloves and helps the circulating nurse throughout the procedure.

d. A continuous flow of sterile irrigating fluid is used to distend the bladder to provide effective visualization.


43. (417) What is the purpose of the screen on a cysto table irrigation drainage pan?

a. Filters irrigation fluid before administration

b. traps a stone or specimen before it is washed away.

c. Provides ventilation to facilitate gravity flow of irrigation fluid.

d. Breaks stones into smaller pieces to prevent blockage of suction.


44. (418) The irrigating solution most widely used during transurethral surgery is

a. water

b. saline

c. glycine

d. mannitol


45. (419) During a simple nephrectomy, three-inch tape is used to

a. secure intubation tubes

b. secure intravenous catheters

c. stabilize the patient on the table

d. stabilize the patient on the gurney


46. (419) After traction sutures are placed in the bladder during suprapubic prostectomy the dome of the bladder is opened with a

a. deep knife

b. tonsil knife

c. amputation knife

d. emulsification knife


47. (419) Removal of a stone from the ureter is called a

a. ureterolithotomy

b. ureterolithiasis

c. ureteroplasty

d. ureterolysis


48. (420) Circumcision refers to

a. removal of the glans

b. removal of the foreskin

c. lengthening of the foreskin

d. widening of the urethral opening


49. (420) Which of these is generally used as a dressing after circumcision?

a. Webril

b. Elastoplast

c. Plaster bandage

d. Petrolatum gauze


50. (420) Orchiopexy can be defined as

a. testicle removal

b. uterine suspension

c. fixation of an ovary

d. fixation of a testicle


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